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I'm trying to understand the following equality found in a paper of quantum key distribution Fully device independent quantum key distribution :

$$a \oplus b = x \wedge y$$

As far as I know;

  • $\oplus$ stands for lofic X-OR
  • $\wedge$ stands for logic AND

Using integers from a specific set $\{0,1\}$, how the above mentioned equality can be satisfied?

Example:

  • $a=1, b=1, x=1, y=1$

    $1 \oplus 1 = 0, \quad 1 \wedge 1 = 1 \quad 0 \neq 1$, therefore NOT satisfied

  • $a=1, b=0, x=1, y=1$

    $1 \oplus 0 = 1, \quad 1 \wedge 1 = 1 \quad 1 = 1$ therefore satisfied

Is that correct?

kelalaka
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terence
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