The title is asking the question in layman terms, but what I really mean to ask is this:
Let $x \in \lbrace 0,1 \rbrace^{128}$ (an arbitrary input block) and let $K \in \lbrace 0, 1 \rbrace^{128}$ (an arbitrary key for 128-bit AES). Let's mark AES decryption with $AES_K^{-1}$. My questions are:
- Is $AES^{-1}_K$ defined for (arbitrary) input $x$? (i.e. Is AES onto $\lbrace 0, 1 \rbrace ^{128}$ for any key?)
- If so, is $AES_K( AES^{-1}_K (x) ) = x$ ?
Are those questions trivial or do they require proof?