0

Why didn't God strike Herod with Leprosy before he could to any harm to the newborns? He could prevent the death of many newborns and Joseph wouldn't have been forced to run to Egypt with Mary and baby Jesus.

Matthew 2:16:

When Herod realized that he had been outwitted by the Magi, he was furious, and he gave orders to kill all the boys in Bethlehem and its vicinity who were two years old and under, in accordance with the time he had learned from the Magi.

In Matthew 2:18 it says that this needs to happen to fulfill the prophecy of Jeremiah:

A voice is heard in Ramah, weeping and great mourning, Rachel weeping for her children and refusing to be comforted, because they are no more.

But why?

Kris
  • 7,068
  • 5
  • 34
  • 69
MikeyJY
  • 343
  • 2
  • 10
  • 2
    Can you say if there are specific scriptural or theological issues involved here? How is this distinguished from the many bad things that have happened in the past? I think there's an interesting question here, but it might make sense to try to distinguish it from a more general 'problem of evil' sort of question. My 2 c. – Only True God Dec 30 '22 at 07:09
  • This is a philosophical enquiry and also an hypothetical enquiry. – Nigel J Dec 30 '22 at 09:16
  • @depperm no it doesn't – MikeyJY Dec 30 '22 at 11:57
  • 1
    @BogdanFloareș why not? how is this question any different, besides being one specific example? – depperm Dec 30 '22 at 12:52
  • I know the answer to the question "If God is omnipotent and mercyfull, why is the world full of pain and suffering". This question is why didn't God punished Herod earlier, because at the end of his life He punished him – MikeyJY Dec 30 '22 at 14:08
  • 1
    @BogdanFloareș, how do you know that "at the end of his life He punished him"? – Ray Butterworth Dec 30 '22 at 14:49
  • 1
    @BogdanFloareș, how is the question different from asking about Hitler and the Holocaust, or Stalin and the Holodomor? Far more newborns were killed by them than by Herod. – Ray Butterworth Dec 30 '22 at 14:51
  • At the end of his life, orthodox tradition says that God gave Herod many painful illnesses. Saint Theophilact of Bulgaria wrote this in 900 AD and it remained in all Eastern Orthodoxy – MikeyJY Dec 30 '22 at 17:42
  • My question is different that asking about Hitler or Stalin because God warned Joseph to flee in Egypt. I'm asking why didn't God warned the families of the babies to hide them from Herod's troops? Now, what I said feels like a heresy, to question God, but I'm trying to explain why it is a different question – MikeyJY Dec 30 '22 at 17:46
  • Why does God allow millions of abortions every year? – Kris Dec 30 '22 at 23:19
  • As a side note, nowhere near as many babies as you might think would have been killed by this; likely 10-20. Still terrible of course, but Bethlehem was not a large city, and wouldn't have actually contained that many male infants – Isaac Middlemiss Dec 31 '22 at 03:18
  • @IsaacMiddlemiss interesting. 14000 is the number thrown about by Catholic and orthodox – Kris Dec 31 '22 at 12:51
  • That number is quite frankly absurd. From Wikipedia: "The Catholic Encyclopedia of 1907–12, recognising that Bethlehem was too small a town to provide such numbers, reduced the victims to between six and twenty children in the town, with a dozen or so more in the surrounding areas." – Isaac Middlemiss Dec 31 '22 at 19:06

1 Answers1

-2

Why did God allowed Herod to slay so many newborns?

While on earth, God rarely directly intervenes in the life of humanity, whether for good or for bad (physical illnessses). This is all part of the mystery of evil (“mysterium iniquitatis”).

In part, God permitted this to happen so that the Sacred Scriptures could be fulfilled.

God generally will not interfere with things on earth and will allow both good and evil to be at odds until the last trumpet sounds. Sure God could have given Herod some sort of disease in order to stop him from killing the Holy Innocents. God could have also given the children some rare disease that took their lives before they were martyred. But, He did not. Some questions can only truly be completely understood when we ourselves enter eternity!

The Massacre of the Innocents was the result of King Herod’s extreme paranoia and cruelty. Herod would do anything to protect his own interests, including murdering all the little boys in Bethlehem. The wise men had alerted Herod to the arrival of a new king in Bethlehem. In his fear and morbid suspicion, Herod could not allow a rival king to live. Not knowing how old Jesus was, but certain the wise men had said they’d first seen the star less than two years before their visit, Herod took no chances and had all male children under two in Bethlehem killed.

Matthew 2:17–18 cites the prophecy of Jeremiah 31:15. In its original context, Jeremiah’s prophecy relates to Israel’s period of captivity in Babylon and the murder of children during the invasion of Judea. The mothers of Israel, portrayed as Rachel, are weeping for their sons who were led into exile. Rachel was considered a matriarchal figure to the nation of Israel, and her tomb is near Bethlehem (Genesis 35:19). Matthew links the prophecy by Jeremiah to the Massacre of the Innocents, and the parallel is striking. Eerie similarities also exist between the Massacre of the Innocents and Pharaoh’s order to kill all Hebrew male infants at the time of Moses’ birth (Exodus 1:15–16).

Herod’s Massacre of the Innocents was carried out, but his plan to rid the world of the Messiah was thwarted when God intervened to protect Jesus in yet another fulfillment of prophecy. When the Magi left Bethlehem to return to their homeland, Joseph had a dream: “An angel of the Lord appeared to Joseph in a dream. ‘Get up! Flee to Egypt with the child and his mother,’ the angel said. ‘Stay there until I tell you to return, because Herod is going to search for the child to kill him.’ That night Joseph left for Egypt with the child and Mary, his mother, and they stayed there until Herod’s death. This fulfilled what the Lord had spoken through the prophet: ‘I called my Son out of Egypt’” (Matthew 2:13–15, NLT; cf. Hosea 11:1). God the Father saved His Son to fulfill His purpose of securing our salvation.

Some ancient Christian traditions claim that the Massacre of the Innocents involved tens to hundreds of thousands of children. However, based on the population of the small village of Bethlehem, the annual birthrate, and the high infant death rate at the time, most biblical historians and demographers estimate the total number of male children under the age of two to be no more than 20 to 40. The lower number makes the crime no less of an atrocity. The death of even one child is a tragedy. - What is the Massacre of the Innocents?

It could be noted that in some Christian denominations these children are considered martyrs because ultimately they shed their blood for Jesus.

Massacre of the Innocents

Today, the date of Holy Innocents' Day, also called the Feast of the Holy Innocents or Childermas or Children's Mass, varies.

  • 27 December for West Syrians (Syriac Orthodox Church, Syro-Malankara Catholic Church, and Maronite Church)

  • 28 December is the date in the Church of England (Festival),the Lutheran Church and the Roman Rite of the Catholic Church. In these Western Christian denominations, Childermas is the fourth day of Christmastide.

  • 29 December for the Eastern Orthodox Church.

  • 10 January for East Syrians (Chaldeans and Syro-Malabar Catholic Church).

Ken Graham
  • 71,079
  • 6
  • 53
  • 173
  • Yes but I know that Herod suffered a very painful death with leprosy and other illnesses as a punishment for what he did, but why didn't God sent this punishment earlier? – MikeyJY Dec 30 '22 at 10:31
  • 2
    God rarely intervenes in the life of humanity, whether for good or for bad. This is the mystery of evil. This answer offers no hope and suggests a God who is either inept or cruel. Why do most versions of Christianity hide behind 'mystery', when the Bible explains otherwise? – steveowen Dec 30 '22 at 12:09
  • 1
    @steveowen Perhaps you would like to share your knowledge and answer the question. – Ken Graham Dec 30 '22 at 12:13
  • @steveowen what is that "otherwise" that Bible explains? – MikeyJY Dec 30 '22 at 14:10
  • 2
    @KenGraham, It's no mystery. 2 Cor 4:4 says that Satan is the god of this age. God is allowing humanity to thoroughly demonstrate that it is incapable of ruling itself, even to the point of total annihilation (Mat 24:22). He intervenes only in very specific cases or when it's required in order to ensure that his plan for humanity stays on course. – Ray Butterworth Dec 30 '22 at 14:47
  • Why is this answer -3 points? – MikeyJY Dec 30 '22 at 19:43
  • 1
    I didn't downvote, but I suspect it's because the essence of the answer is: "Some questions can only truly be completely understood when we ourselves enter eternity!". That is, it's a non-answer, or at least a very unsatisfying answer. ¶ Note that although I personally disagree with it, I'm not saying there is anything wrong with this answer. Sometimes the truth really is unsatisfying. – Ray Butterworth Dec 31 '22 at 01:52