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Sometimes I'm not clear why a systematic theologian doesn't simply adopt the Biblical term "New Covenant" but using terms like "Covenant of Grace". What is the reasoning behind it?

In the ESV translation the term "New Covenant" appears in a variety of contexts: Jer 31:31, Luke 22:20, 1 Cor 11:25, 2 Cor 3:6, Heb 8:8, Heb 8:13, Heb 9:15, Heb 12:24. Doesn't the usage and contexts created by Jeremiah, Jesus, Paul, and author of Hebrews sufficient to justify the use of "New Covenant" as a systematic theology category, making the systematic theology more Biblical?

If a systematic theology uses the category "Covenant of Grace" how does it integrate the Biblical term "New Covenant" into its theology and how does the theology contrast it with "Covenant of Grace"?

Preliminary research

  • Examples systematic theologians using "Covenant of Grace": see Mr. Bultitude's answer to the question "What is the origin of the Covenant of Grace?". Although the answer shows that the origin was in the Calvinistic tradition, the answer does not explicitly explain why the need to organize their theologies around an additional but artificial concept "Covenant of Grace".
  • Clue from Nathaniel's answer to the question "According to Reformed theology, when did the New Covenant start?" since the answer is framed in terms of "Covenant of Grace".
GratefulDisciple
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    I think your question (and your case) would be strengthened if you were to give a couple of quotations from actual systematic theology theologians and their writings. Just a thought. – rhetorician Mar 30 '22 at 22:21
  • @rhetorician Thanks. I added references to other answers that in turn point toward quotations from actual systematic theologians. – GratefulDisciple Mar 31 '22 at 15:20

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