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Genesis 3:22 says:

Then the LORD God said, "See, the man has become like one of us, knowing good and evil; and now, he might reach out his hand and take also from the tree of life, and eat, and live forever"--

I am a Hindu and I really don't know if this verse has been erroneously translated. Don't you think this verse conveys that there is more than one one god, particularly the phrase "like one of us", which goes against the concept of singularity of god in Abrahmic religions?

curiousdannii
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Vipul Tyagi
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  • For starters, the Hebrew words for God and Lord are grammatical plurals (see plurale tantum, pluralis excellentiae, pluralis majestatis, intensive and abstract plural). Secondly, God is understood as ruling over countless angelic armies, described elsewhere in the Hebrew scriptures as numbering thousands of thousands, and myriads of myriads; indeed, so-called sons of God are mentioned in Genesis 6. –  Sep 25 '20 at 01:41
  • Ancient Hebrew grammar does not have concepts like plurale tantum etc. These are Latin concepts being projected onto Hebrew. The word מִמֶּ֔נּוּ (of Us) in this verse is a simple first person common plural. Many scholars consider this plural form to be a remnant of pre-Mosaic polytheism that can be found throughout the OT, like in the names of God, like El Bet' el (Gen. 31:13; 35:7), El 'Olam (Gen. 21:33), El Ro'i (Gen. 16:13), El 'Elyon (Gen. 14:18), El Saddai (Gen. 17:1), each indicating a local deity from the polytheistic era. – Codosaur Sep 27 '20 at 13:57

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