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In Mark 4:34 it says:

"He did not say anything to them without using a parable. But when He was alone with his own disciples, he explained everything." (NIV)

My question is this: why did Jesus not share the meanings of the parables with the general population he talked to and only to his disciples?

curiousdannii
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Tyler Kreiner
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  • I moved the question to the title. But the edit is under review. Like that it is more obvious that the question is not a duplicate. I think the word "secrecy" triggered their duplicate alarm. – Hjan Oct 01 '17 at 09:40
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    @Hjan A question similar to the new title of this onehas also been asked previously; I've added a link to it above. – Nathaniel is protesting Oct 02 '17 at 12:32
  • @Nathaniel, yes that one is really similar, i agree on that. Thanks for taking my comment in to consideration. – Hjan Oct 03 '17 at 12:36

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