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Given that God is all-powerful (omnipotent), all-knowing (omniscient), and everywhere (omnipresent) by definition, there are three possible conclusions:

1) God is evil - He created Lucifer, knowing he was going to go Satan on the world resulting in all the pain and suffering that goes along with it, merely for God's enjoyment and fascination. (Think of someone pointing a magnifying glass towards an anthill)

2) God is apathetic to evil/good - Like #1, he created Lucifer, had the power to stop/change it, but it simply didn't matter to him the consequences of his action/inaction.

3) The Christian definition is wrong or ill-defined. (Bad choice of words perhaps)

Obviously, most Christians aren't going to like any of these three conclusions. And I personally refuse to believe in a God who is evil or apathetic to evil. So I'm inclined to explore the possibility that perhaps the definition of God (the 3 omnis), might need to be better refined.

How does one reconcile these conclusions?

I realize this might not sit well with some readers which may result in downvotes. I am honestly not trying to be antagonistic or argumentative. Rather, this is truly a longstanding conundrum in my mind that I've been unable to find a satisfactory answer. The few people I've asked have said they would have to think about it and get back with me (then the topic kind of fizzles away).

I'm fairly well-versed in the teachings of the Bible. Born & raised in a conservative evangelical home (Wesleyan school of thought), graduated from a conservative Christian college, etc. I don't say all this to try and show how righteous I am (I'm certainly not), but to let you know you don't have start from Christianity-101-John 3:16-type of explanations to "get me up to speed".

iMerchant
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    There are more than those three conclusions! But this kind of question is not one which the Stack Exchange format is very well equipped to handle. – curiousdannii Jan 06 '17 at 08:17
  • @curiousdannii - Related, but not really a dupe. I'm not asking why there is evil but rather to try and find the fallacy (if any) in my conclusions. I haven't been able to come up with other conclusions that aren't contradictory. Hence my reaching out to SE:Christianity for help. I'm not new to SE, just SE:C. – iMerchant Jan 06 '17 at 08:23
  • One problem I see is that generally speaking, if a denomination deals with this problem head-on at all, they deal with it from the angle of the existence of evil, not the existence of Lucifer. So it may be difficult to impossible to find an authoritative denominational response to the question. – Matt Gutting Jan 06 '17 at 11:40
  • It's also important to note that "Christianity" doesn't have a single answer for this – different denominations will deal with this problem differently. Here's a similar question directed at Reformed theology: According to reformed theology, how does the fall glorify God? – Nathaniel is protesting Jan 06 '17 at 12:11

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The only thing that makes sense to me is to accept that God exists in a realm outside of ours (although He is very present in ours as well), a realm in which there is no time, as I believe God created time.

If there is no time, concepts like "God should have known lucifer will go satan" can't exist anymore, as there would have been no future or past tenses.

Trying to answer this falls in the same category as "Who was there before God?" or "Who created God?". Since we as humans exists in this realm and are bound to time, we cannot imagine existence in a realm without time.

So I would not only say the christian definitions are ill defined, but that the whole of humanity's understanding is limited, that our brains simply does not possess the ability to grasp or understand the realms beyond ours. Therefore the definitions defines God as what He would have been (and is) in our world/dimensions/realms.

CodeWarrior
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