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Doesn't the scriptures clearly state, in the context of the women, that buying and preparing spices mean that the messiah must have died on a Wednesday Pesach?

When the women came back to tell the rest of the followers of the messiah that he had risen and that the tomb was empty, they found their message to be disbelieved by the listeners. Today, when the testimony of the women in Mark and Luke establishes a very key context (the death, burial, resurrection as the core of the faith), we find that the some of the listeners once again do not believe them. In the following teaching, you will see just what the women tell us from the scriptures without additions, subtractions or distortions of the Word.

Very simply put, we have the women in Mark’s gospel, resting, followed by purchasing spices. In Luke’s gospel, we have the women, preparing spices, followed by a day of rest. If one would create a context of the Word by having the women prepare spices on a day (Friday- before Sabbath) and then having the women buy other spices or more amounts on the day after that day of rest, then we run into the problem of proper exegesis. For if one has the women prepare spices before buying spices, then the question can be asked like this “What spices did they prepare?” If the Bible is used to test scripture (test scripture by scripture), then we must look to other texts that provide the answer to “What spices?" This is accomplished by looking at Mark who provides the witness that the women bought spices. If Luke's “prepare spices before a Sabbath” is our only text, one could rightly add that the women had some, found some, and received some. But we are not left with only Luke, so we have the women buying spices after a day of rest and preparing spices before a day of rest. This makes Friday the day of buy and prepare - Thursday is the day of rest that Mark mentions that the women had before buying spices. Thursday then can only be the first day of the feast of unleavened and is preceded by a wednesday pesach. Ask me questions and i will answer- this comes from knowing what is written in the Torah.

mary
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    I have voted down your question for two obvious reasons the reason Jesus body was released for burial was because, that was the eve of the Sabbath which would begin at sundown. The second reason is because Jesus arose on the third day. day one the day of crucifixion, day two the Sabbath, and day three the day after the Sabbath. Whether they already had the spices or bought them is not worth trying to either lengthen or shorten the time Jesus spent in death. – BYE Dec 21 '13 at 22:15
  • Hello Cecil-- if one does not care to rightly divide the Word then they have the right too -- true followers want to rightly divide the Word because messiah tells us too and the souls of men hang in the balance. A day of rest can occur anytime a moed or divinely decreed "holyday"occurs-- ie in this case we have passover followed by the feast of unleavened- the first day of feast being a day of rest- occurring any day of the week. Tradition says messiah dies on Friday-- scriptures tell a different story-- which do you want to follow? Mike – mary Dec 24 '13 at 20:53
  • @mary Are you Mary or Mike, or are you both Mary and Mike? – Double U Dec 24 '13 at 22:08
  • @mary I also do not think it is appropriate on this forum to retain the long Bible Study comment. This sounds like Bible Study (also known as Christian devotional study). – Double U Dec 24 '13 at 22:11
  • possible duplicate of What is the origin of the Good Friday tradition? – Bruce Alderman Dec 26 '13 at 05:51
  • The context of the spices is this-- the women do two things- buy and prepare spices. they buy after a day of rest- proper exegesis only allows them to buy before prepare. buy after a day of rest means that thursday is day of rest- only could be day after pesach and day of rest of first day of feast of unleavened. Thus wednesday is pesach according to the women- there is no way around this but the teaching is always on the table for discussion or refutation-- none have been able to defeat the testimony of the women to date- put on hold or ask me a question – mary Dec 29 '13 at 23:19
  • @mary - I think you are right... almost. Thurs was the 15th Nisan, the first day of Unleavened Bread and Wed was the 14th Nisan when our Lord, etc celebrated the Last Supper as a Passover meal. But these dates were all according to the Mosaic Calendar which they followed. The Temple followed the Babylonian-based Cal. with 14th Nisan on Fri when was crucifixion. Yes, women bought & prepared spices on Fri 14th Nisan (Babylonian-based/Temple/Main Jewish Calendar) after their 15th Nisan Sabbath on Thurs, and prepared before the Sat Sabbath. See my answer to Was the Last Supper not the Passover? – Andrew Shanks Aug 02 '23 at 09:11

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This hypothesis has the following problem:

Problem 1:

Luke 23:54 says:

It was the preparation dayI.e. preparation for the Sabbath, and the Sabbath was about to begin.

Mark 15:42 says:

42 When evening had already come, because it was the preparation day, that is, the day before the Sabbath,

Sabbath was on Saturday. The day before it should have been Friday.

Problem 2:

Luke 24:13 and 21 describes Vision on The Road to Emmaus

13 And behold, two of them were going that very day to a village named Emmaus ....

21 it is the third day since these things happened.

From the above verses we know that the disciples were going to Emmaus on the very day on which Jesus rose from the dead and on that day they say that 'today is the third day after Jesus was persecuted'. If Jesus died on Wednesday, how ever you count, you will not be able to make Sunday as the third day. Note that the disciples say that it is the third day not it was three days ago. They are saying that the Sunday was the third day after the death of Christ.

Then you might ask: what about the women and the spices?

This Wednesday theory is proposed very recently (compared to 2000 yrs of history) by few "scholars" who have no understanding of Jewish Calender system and want to reconcile the three days and three nights in the heart of the earth verse. (Matthew 12:40)

They assume the following unnecessarily:

  • The women had to work one whole day to prepare spices
  • The women could not have bought spices and prepared them on Friday evening. (We know from the scriptures that the women saw where Jesus was buried. But they could have went back and bought and prepared spices while Jesus body was prepared (with myrrh and aloes) and buried by Nicodemus and Joseph of arimathea)

By your own method testing scriptures with scriptures (even though I do not agree with this method) Luke 24:13-21 clearly proves that Jesus did not die on Wednesday.

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Jayarathina Madharasan
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  • If rightly dividing the Word is important then this is refreshing- thankyou. You put ie Sabbath. The greek does not do Hebrew justice and uses one word for what could be atleast 3 options. 7th day of week or days of solemn assembly are all days of rest. So this particular Sabbath needs to conform to the context surrounding it- the spice purchase and prepare must be on the table. Problem one refuted. Two- all these things-- "panta" in greek in greek- on day after burial jews station a guard-three days later they discuss all things- that day not yet ended- not counted? 2000 yrs it sits in Word? – mary Dec 24 '13 at 21:05
  • they assume? one whole day to prepare are your words not mine- could have bought and prepared on Friday- yes- after a day of rest as scripture states-let the text speak- not tradition. How do you test scripture or rightly divide- must not you look at context- this is the first sense as expounded by the Church. You use scripture above to prove scripture do you not- that is testing scripture by scripture is it not? Context Context Context You jump ahead when we are just asking what the women speak-- buy after a day of rest- prepare before a day of rest. – mary Dec 24 '13 at 21:29
  • To @mary: //spice purchase and prepare must be on the table// so what? why can't they buy in a shop? Nicodemus did, the women would bought and did little bit of preparing. (not saying they did, asking why not? they put it on table and rested for one day) Your refutation is speculation. In Luke 24:20-21 The chief priests and our rulers delivered Him to be condemned to death and have crucified Him.... And besides all this, today is the third day since these things were done. They are clearly talking about death of Christ not when Jews put up guards. Sorry. Your refutation doesn't hold good. – Jayarathina Madharasan Dec 25 '13 at 04:45
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    @ Jayarathina Madharasan Whoever this Mary is must be someone who is trying to either force their idea on the public or is just being argumentative. Either way it does us no good to continuously debate the issue I suggest you either abandon this argument or move it to chat. – BYE Dec 25 '13 at 13:41
  • To jayarathina- your question is good- they can buy the spices and not have to prepare them. If they buy them on Friday then the day before is a day of rest. The text is clear- after a day of rest they buy spices- We all say Friday and before a day of rest they prepare spices- all happens then on Friday before a day of rest and after a day of rest, right? Do i force the scriptures to speak thus or is it natural to think that they bought and then prepared-- i did not write the Word-- i am just relaying the plain context of the Scripture-- slow down and take a closer look-- Mary – mary Dec 26 '13 at 02:42
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    To @mary: I agree but that does not make Jesus to be dead on Wednesday. I think we both made our point. I don't think spices argument is a valid one. I based my argument on Luke 24:20-21. The Strong's Greek Concordance makes it pretty clear what the Greek text means. So I rest my case. No more debating in this regard unless you have countered this verse. If you have more biblical evidence move this to chat. Wish you a Merry Christmas. – Jayarathina Madharasan Dec 26 '13 at 05:25
  • Luke 24: must have its own context- Mark and Luke and the spices must have their own context. Luke 24 does not state when the men started their counting- scriptures say "all things" so we must allow the Word to speak. Tell me how you know what the men were thinking-- you must add to the text- they may have stated many things but we only can teach on what is written in the Word. right? if you say all things must disclude parts of the Word then how can we have a biblical discussion- all things means all things- right? – mary Dec 28 '13 at 21:30