As this page in this book says, lead(II) acetate is soluble, but does not ionize appreciably. It seems contradictory to me, since, to call a substance soluble means it has high $K_\mathrm{sp}$ (when compared with other substances with the same elemental ratios in their formula units). But how can the book say it doesn't ionize appreciably? Why call it soluble then?
EDIT: I forgot that it is wrong to say that "to call a substance soluble means it has high $K_\mathrm{sp}$", so I revised it accordingly.
Here's the picture of the actual paragraph for those who can't access the link:
I recognize that this question actually reflects my inability to distinguish between dissociation and dissolution, now that I have cleared it from me, I rephrased the question to reflect my actual question. I did not erase the previous version to be able to show the reference of MEL Science's and alphonse's answers.
ACTUAL QUESTION: Why does lead(II) acetate not dissociate appreciably in water, considering that the ionic forms of acetate and lead(II) ion can be hydrated well due to the presence of partial charges in the water molecule?