I read the proof of, that there are infinitely many primes of form $4n+3$ and it goes here:
Proof. In anticipation of a contradiction, let us assume that there exist only finitely many primes of the form $4n+3$; call them $q_1,q_2,\ldots ,q_s$. Consider the positive integer $$N=4q_1q_2\cdots q_s -1 = 4(q_1q_2\cdots q_s -1)+3$$ and let $N=r_1r_2\cdots r_t$ be its prime factorization. Because $N$ is an odd integer, we have $r_k\ne 2$ for all $k$, so that each $r_k$ is either of the form $4n+1$ or $4n+3$. By the lemma, the product of any number of primes of the form $4n+1$ is again an integer of this type. For $N$ to take the form $4n+3$, as it clearly does, $N$ must contain at least one prime factor $r_i$ of the form $4n+3$. But $r_i$ cannot be found among the listing $q_1,q_2,\ldots ,q_s$, for this would lead to the contradiction that $r_i \mid 1$. The only possible conclusion is that there are infinitely many primes of the form $4n+3$.
$q_1,q_2,\ldots ,q_s$ I need an explanation from last three line i.e. this.
They said that:
- $q_{1},q_{2}, \cdots ,q_{s}$ is of the form $4n+3$ (let).
- $r_{i}$ is of form $4n+3$ (at least one).
- $r_{i}$ cannot be found in listing $q_{1},q_{2}, \cdots ,q_{s}$
And lemma they used is:
The product of two or more integers of the form $4n+1$ is of the same form.
My problems:
- If above two holds then why $r_{i}$ cannot be found in listing $q_{1},q_{2}, \cdots ,q_{s}$.
- And how $r_{i}|1$
- If all this holds then why $q's$ are infinite.
Please give the most elementary explanation as you can, any help worth a lot to me, Thanks.
(I took this from David M. Burton book).