Consider the quotient ring $F[x]/(x^n)$, where $F$ is a field. Every element of this ring can be represented by a $n-1$ degree polynomial, i.e., written as $$f = a_0 + a_1x + \cdots + a_{n-1}x^{n-1} + (x^n)$$ (some coset of $(x^n)$).
I'm trying to prove that $f$ is a unit $\iff$ $a_0 \neq 0$.
Now, the unit in this ring is the element represented by $1 + (x^n)$. So for $\Rightarrow$, we can prove by contraposition $a_0 = 0 \Rightarrow f$ is not a unit. So let $a_0 = 0$ and assume $f$ is a unit, then there is a $g = b_0 + b_1x + ... + b_{n-1}x^{n-1} + (x^n)$ such that $fg = 1 + (x^n)$. This means that $fg$ must have a constant term $1$. But then $1 = a_0b_0 = 0\cdot b_0=0$ which is a contradiction (since in a field, $1 \neq 0$).
For the reverse implication, for small $n$ I was able to write down the inverses explicitly, ie; for $n = 2$, $f = a_0 + a_1x + (x^2)$ in $F[x]/(x^2)$, if $a_0 \neq 0$ we can take $g = a_0^{-1} - a_0^{-1}a_1a_0^{-1}x + (x^2)$ which is nonzero since $a_0^{-1}$ is nonzero. then $fg$ = $1 - a_1a_0^{-1}a_1a_0^{-1}x^2 + (x^2) = 1 + (x^2)$
now for $n=3$ we can find something similar, and the only inverse that shows up in the coefficients of $g$ is the inverse of $a_0$ which by assumption exists, the rest of the inverses do not have to be taken and so we won't run into trouble computing the inverse given any $n$ (besides the trouble that for large $n$, writing this out would be a lot of work).
However, I am stuck trying to give an actual proof for the reverse implication. I'm sure I'm missing something here, but I don't know what. Do you guys have any hints to help me solve this problem?
Thanks in advance!