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This doesn't require much more than the title. I just need an explanation, but an algebraic proof would be a bonus.

We can demonstrate this for quadrilaterals, a square is best as shown by this graph- the area peaks when both sides are equal at 250.

anon582847382
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  • How did you prove it for quadrilaterals? – Asinomás Jul 15 '14 at 15:01
  • I think this might help http://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=608769 – Jam Jul 15 '14 at 15:02
  • @Bananarama I didn't prove it algebraically, but it was the only one that I could figure out with a graph. Polygons are more complex, and as I said ideally I will have an indisputable proof. – anon582847382 Jul 15 '14 at 15:03
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    but did you prove it for all quadrilaterals or only rectangles? – Asinomás Jul 15 '14 at 15:04
  • @Bananarama Oh, it appears I misunderstood you. I haven't proven that 'regular' (if you will) quadrilaterals are best in that sense, but I guess that would still work under the proof as they are still technically polygons. – anon582847382 Jul 15 '14 at 15:06
  • His point is that you have only checked the area of rectangles, so you do not know whether there is a non-rectangle with larger area than a square. – user21820 Jul 15 '14 at 15:08
  • @user21820 I understand, I thought what I had so far might be a little bit useful, but maybe not on this occasion. But the question still stands- given a polygon of n sides, why will the regular one have the greatest area? – anon582847382 Jul 15 '14 at 15:10
  • As the number of sides approaches infinity, the shape approaches a circle (which encloses the maximum area) so it would work for suffiently large n but I'm not sure otherwise – Jam Jul 15 '14 at 15:12
  • @oliveeuler: No that argument is faulty because there might be a sequence of non-regular polygons that tends to the circle as well but do better than their regular counterparts. – user21820 Jul 15 '14 at 15:24
  • Anyway I'm in the midst of writing up a simple proof so please give me a while.. – user21820 Jul 15 '14 at 15:24
  • It seems that a proof might be found in http://dmat.cfm.cl/colloquium/2010-07-09-15:00.pdf –  Jul 15 '14 at 15:27
  • Sorry I don't know how I misread the question to be for cyclic polygons... But the same idea would work, and I think the pdf that John links to is doing essentially that. I'll edit my answer to answer the question... – user21820 Jul 15 '14 at 15:40

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Here is an elegant proof, but it relies on a bit of real analysis and not just euclidean geometry. I assume you are concerned with only non-self-intersecting polygons since it is not clear what should be defined as the area of a self-intersecting polygon.

[Edit: I don't know how I misread the question to be about polygons inscribed in a given circle with the maximum area. The first proof solves that and the second proof solves the original problem.]

Cyclic Polygon Maximum Area

Let $D$ be the set of vectors in $\mathbb{R}^n$ that describe the angles subtended by the sides of a non-self-intersecting cyclic polygon (which is allowed to have sides of length $0$).

Then $D$ is clearly a closed bounded set and hence compact.

Let $f(v)$ be the area of the polygon $P$ that is described by the vector $v$.

Then $f$ is continuous on $D$.

Therefore $f$ attains a maximum on $D$.

Let $a \in D$ such that $f(a) = \max_{v \in D} f(v)$ and let R be the polygon described by $a$.

If $R$ is not regular:

  $R$ has two sides $AB,BC$ of unequal length.

  Move $B$ on the arc $AC$ to make $AB,BC$ of equal length.

  Then $B$ is now further away from $AC$ and hence $Area(\triangle ABC)$ increases.

  Thus $Area(R)$ increases.

  Contradiction.

Therefore $R$ is regular.

Isoperimetric Polygon Maximum Area

Let $p > 0$ be the given perimeter.

Let $D$ be the set of points in $(\mathbb{R}^2)^n$ that describe the vertices of a directed polygon of perimeter $p$ (which is allowed to have sides of length $0$ and self intersections) such that one vertex is $(0,0)$.

Then $D$ is a closed (since it can be expressed as non-strict inequalities) bounded set and hence compact.

Let $f(v)$ be the signed area of the polygon $P$ that is described by the vector $v$.

Then $f$ is continuous on $D$.

Therefore $f$ attains a maximum on $D$.

Let $a \in D$ such that $f(a) = \max_{v \in D} f(v)$ and let R be the polygon described by $a$.

If $R$ has two sides $AB,BC$ such that $|AB| \ne |BC|$ or $Area(\triangle ABC) < 0$:

  Move $B$ to preserve $|AB|+|BC|$ but make $|AB| = |BC|$ and $Area(\triangle ABC) \ge 0$.

  The locus of $B$ that preserves $|AB|+|BC|$ is an ellipse with $AC$ as a diameter.

  Thus $Area(\triangle ABC)$ increases and hence $Area(R)$ increases.

  Contradiction.

Therefore $R$ has all sides of equal length and each internal angle being at most $180^\circ$.

If $R$ is not cyclic:

  Let $X,Y,Z,W$ be four vertices of $R$ in order that do not lie on a circle.

  These four vertices divide the sides of $R$ into four sections.

  Move those four sections rigidly so that $R$ remains a polygon but $XYZW$ becomes cyclic.

  Then $Area(R)$ increases by Bretschneider's formula.

  Contradiction.

Therefore $R$ is cyclic.

Therefore $R$ is a regular polygon (possibly a star).

Thus $R$ has area $n·\tan(α/2)$ where $α$ is the internal angle between sides of $R$.

Thus $R$ is a regular polygon since it alone maximizes $α$.

Notes

The above proofs also show with essentially no change that the regular polygon is the only case with the maximum area. My second proof uses signed area since it was easier than requiring the polygon to be non-self-intersecting, but I'll leave my first proof the way it is.

user21820
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  • If you accept that a regular polygon of $n$ sides exists for any $n$, and you can show that any other arbitrary polygon of $n$ sides has less area, do you really need Bolzano-Weierstrauss in order to establish that the regular polygon has the maximum area? – David K Jul 15 '14 at 16:23
  • @DavidK: This method does not directly compare an arbitrary polygon with the regular one, which is why we needed compactness to show that there is a maximum area polygon and then prove that it is regular. (Anyway I'm in the process of fixing my answer for the non-cyclic version. Please give me a little while more..) – user21820 Jul 15 '14 at 16:26
  • True, you can't use that method to make a one-step comparison between the regular polygon and the arbitrary polygon. I was thinking you could build a chain of inequalities based on numbers of equal sides and angles. Now I'm having some doubts about it, and in any case it looks like B-W is a faster way to the result after all. – David K Jul 15 '14 at 16:35
  • @DavidK: It's possible if we can construct a sequence of polygons with increasing area, but we will still need to use sequential compactness to extract a convergent subsequence of polygons and even then we will have a problem proving that the limit polygon is regular. At least that's what I think. – user21820 Jul 15 '14 at 16:38
  • @DavidK: Actually your approach is not quite the same as what I describe in my above comment, and it is good for algebraic inequalities, where the equality case is all variables equal, and at each step you take the highest and lowest variable and bring them together such that the number of variables at the equality case increases by at least one. It might work for the cyclic polygon version but I don't like those trigonometric quantities enough to try. =P – user21820 Jul 15 '14 at 16:42
  • Yes, I think now we both know what I had in mind and neither of us really wants to attempt it after all. :-) – David K Jul 15 '14 at 16:51
  • About the part starting with "If R is not regular:" If all sides are equal and all areas are positive, how do you deduce that R is convex? For example we can take regular 5-gon $A_1A_2A_3A_4A_5$ and look at $A_1A_3A_5A_2A_4$. This is closed polyline with all sides equal and all areas are positive... – bigant146 Aug 13 '17 at 09:19
  • @bigant146: You are right; there is a gap! Such is the problem with this kind of intuitive/hand-waving proofs. But since I'm using directed area, I could just eliminate that claim, because the next part (showing that it is cyclic) does not depend on it being convex or having sides of equal length! So at the end we know that it must be a regular polygon (possibly a star), and it is easy to check that only the non-star polygon gives the maximum (signed) area, which is $\sum_{k=1}^n \tan(a_k/2)$ where $a_k$ is the angle between $k$-th and $(k+1)$-th sides. I'll edit my post; could you help check? – user21820 Aug 13 '17 at 14:58
  • @user21820: in fact it's easier to prove that the set of convex polygons with the number of verticies less or equal then $n$ is compact. It follows from the vact that the distance from $(x,y)$ to the line passing throw the $(x_1,y_1)$ and $(x_2,y_2)$ is continious. That's why you can claim that the maximum area polygon is convex.

    But it takes me a lot of time to come up with this...

    – bigant146 Aug 13 '17 at 15:02
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    @bigant146: Hmm your last comment works if we aim to prove that the maximum-area non-self-intersecting polygon is convex. But if we want to prove that the maximum-signed-area polygon is convex, I'm afraid I don't see how it works, which is also why I ended up with the above argument, which I've just edited in. – user21820 Aug 13 '17 at 15:22
  • @user21820: oh... you are right that maximum-signed-area closed line may be not polygon... – bigant146 Aug 13 '17 at 15:33
  • When you say D is closed and bounded, and hence compact, can someone explain the reasons for why D is closed and bounded? – Scuffed Newton Sep 02 '20 at 16:39
  • @ScuffedNewton: Which proof? For the first, you have $n$ non-negative angles whose sum is $360°$ (allowing degenerate cyclic polygons). The set of all such tuples of angles is clearly bounded, and also closed since it is described by the conjunction of non-strict inequalities (non-negative) and an equation (sum), which corresponds to an intersection of closed sets. For the second proof, the set $D$ is clearly bounded since the points are at most $p$ from $(0,0)$, and also closed because ${ v_{1..n} : v_{1..n}∈\mathbb{R}^{2n} ∧ f(v_{1..n}) = p }$ is closed for any continuous $f$. – user21820 Sep 02 '20 at 17:52
  • @user21820 I was talking to the second proof. Thank you for the explanation, but I still have a question. I am just learning this part of mathematics, and the fact the D is closed for any continuous f confuses me. As far I as I understand it, this means that since the perimeter of the polygon defined by a vector in D is fixed at p, the set is closed. I don't quite get this. Is there an explanation using simple terms, I apologize for my ignorance, but I really am a novice here. – Scuffed Newton Sep 02 '20 at 18:19
  • @ScuffedNewton: $S⊆ℝ^{2n}$ is closed iff every convergent sequence of points from $S$ has a limit in $S$. And continuous functions commute with limits, so we get the desired result. More generally, the pre-image of a closed set under a continuous function is closed, which is why I mentioned non-strict inequalities in my post. That is, ${ v : v∈ℝ^{2n} ∧ f(v) ≤ p }$ is also closed. If you want some intuition, consider a sequence of polygons with perimeter $p$ that converges vertex-wise, and see that the perimeter of the limit polygon is also $p$. – user21820 Sep 02 '20 at 19:30