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Related: Visually stunning math concepts which are easy to explain

Beside the wonderful examples above, there should also be counterexamples, where visually intuitive demonstrations are actually wrong. (e.g. missing square puzzle)

Do you know the other examples?

puzzlet
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    all of the answers below rely on a slight bend in a diagonal line which accounts for the missing area – ratchet freak Apr 07 '14 at 08:07
  • @ratchetfreak Actually I don't believe that is true for the chocolate puzzle. See my update – MT_ Apr 07 '14 at 11:48
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    @MichaelT The point is that if you had moved the piece congruently, you would have the bent-diagonal that the others use; you don't get it only because the animation 'fills it in' along the way. – Steven Stadnicki Apr 07 '14 at 17:53
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    Also, interestingly (well, interestingly-to-me), most of the variants rely on the fact that $F_{n+1}F_{n-1}-F_n^2 = (-1)^n$; presumably this makes for a more appealing false-dissection than $n^2-(n+1)(n-1)=1$ because the 'aspect ratio' of the rectangular side is more skewed. – Steven Stadnicki Apr 07 '14 at 17:56
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    Just like magic tricks, these concepts rely entirely on the tricking of the human senses (which tend to be easily fooled). – Domi Apr 08 '14 at 12:43
  • Are you willing to accept physics errors as well as math errors? If so, the Museum of Unworkable Devices is a good collection of "perpetual motion machines". – keshlam Apr 09 '14 at 04:49
  • I was wondering if you were looking for an optical illusion of a mathematically impossible 2D image like I provided in my answer at https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/743067/visually-deceptive-proofs-which-are-mathematically-wrong/3067031#3067031 which I could not find in any of the other answers or any optical illusion book. I know some optical illusions appear different than they are but are still mathematically possible and some are of a mathematically impossible 3D object but the 2D image of it is mathematically possible and appears as it is. – Timothy Jan 09 '19 at 06:25
  • This duplicates https://matheducators.stackexchange.com/q/570. –  Nov 27 '21 at 20:36
  • There is a nice counter-example to Morley's theorem in hyperbolic geometry, given around 20.50 in this lecture "Langage mathématique" by Alain Connes (2018). – Watson Feb 11 '22 at 09:43

24 Answers24

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The never ending chocolate bar!

Visual

If only I knew of this as a child..

The trick here is that the left piece that is three bars wide grows at the bottom when it slides up. In reality, what would happen is that there would be a gap at the right between the three-bar piece and the cut. This gap is is three bars wide and one-third of a bar tall, explaining how we ended up with an "extra" piece.

Side by side comparison:

Visual

Notice how the base of the three-wide bar grows. Here's what it would look like in reality$^1$:

Visual

1: Picture source https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Zx7vUP6f3GM

Henry
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MT_
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    This - and both other answers - are completely equivalent to the one mentioned in the OP. – Jack M Apr 07 '14 at 06:22
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    Actually I'm not so sure -- in the case of the missing square puzzle, the trick is that the diagonals are not straight. With this puzzle it's that the chocolate is cut in a way that, in reality, a full row of chocolate would not be completed around the right edge. I've edited the post to explain that. – MT_ Apr 07 '14 at 11:36
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    This is the Banach-Tarski paradox of candybars! – Asaf Karagila Apr 07 '14 at 16:21
  • I love this one! – Integral Apr 13 '14 at 16:03
  • I like this version better than the one at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kx41KG_wC_Y because in that version of the never ending chocolate bar, it's too obvious what's happening. Are you sorry you didn't see it when you were a kid because now it's too late for you to get tricked into thinking volume is not a fixed thing that adds when you take the union? Actually, in ZF, you can't prove that there exists a way to define volume that satisfies those properties as shown at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=s86-Z-CbaHA. You might love that video. – Timothy Jan 09 '19 at 04:21
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A bit surprised this hasn't been posted yet. Taken from this page:

enter image description here

anaconda
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    I don't see from this explanation why $\pi = 24$ :) – MT_ Apr 07 '14 at 11:58
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    @MichaelT Nice copy of a previous comment. – evil999man Apr 07 '14 at 12:02
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    I like this one because it shows that Archimedes really does have a problem: he has to explain why his limiting process (circumscribed and inscribed $n$-gons) approaches $\pi$ in the limit, while this one doesn't. There is an explanation, because the technique Archimiese used does actually work, but I don't think the explanation was available to Archimedes. They key point is that although the zigzag converges pointwise to the circle, the slopes of the segments don't converge, and the arc length is a function of the slope. – MJD Apr 07 '14 at 12:50
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    @MJD: Archimedes' technique does not have this problem. He used a postulate that if one convex curve encloses another, then the outer is longer than the inner. By constructing sequences of inscribed and circumscribed polygons, he was able to produce upper and lower bounds for the ratio of circumference to diameter. There was no assumption that a sequence of curves approaching the circle must have length approaching the length of the circle. The sequence of polygons in the picture only shows that $\pi$ is less than 4. – user2357112 Apr 07 '14 at 13:33
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    @MJD Interestingly this has a lot to do with Taxicab geometry (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Taxicab_geometry). Where this logic is actually correct. This shows that this is not fundamentally wrong, it is more a fairly arbitrary decision of how we define distance in classic geometry. – Vality Apr 07 '14 at 18:31
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    @Awesome which? – MT_ Apr 07 '14 at 20:57
  • I've followed the explanation in the diagram, but I'm still working out the penultimate step. I think it might take a while. – Jodrell Apr 08 '14 at 11:30
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    Speaking of which, is there a result that says the arc length defined in the usual way (as some integral involving slope) is the only length that satisfies properties we expect, such as additiveness, invariance under reparametrization, and how the length changes under affine transformation? Because if a layman asks "why does zigzag argument fail?" and I answer "look at the slope. recall that the length is a function of slope." the layman will then ask "but why?" and then if I try to explain that by approximating a curve with piecewise linear curve, that would be back to square one, so... – Jisang Yoo Apr 08 '14 at 11:46
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    ...so my answer should rather be "it's the definition" and then the layman will ask "but why?" and then I cite the result and the why chain is then finished. – Jisang Yoo Apr 08 '14 at 11:48
  • @MichaelT The question you linked to. Comment by xport. – evil999man Apr 09 '14 at 09:57
  • @MichaelT In this answer, the line "Taken from this page". I meant the question linked here. – evil999man Apr 09 '14 at 12:10
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    @Awesome Oh. Well I don't see how two people saying that $4! = 24$ implies plagiarism. The delivery were quite different. – MT_ Apr 09 '14 at 12:15
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    @Vality: It's not an "arbitrary matter of definition;" it can be demonstrated objectively. Take a wheel, 1 foot in diameter, and a length of string. Wrap the string around the circumference of the wheel once, then cut it and measure, and it will be ~3.14 feet long, not 4 feet. – Mason Wheeler Apr 10 '14 at 00:44
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    @MasonWheeler But by doing that you are already defining circumference to be the shortest length of string that will wrap around a circle. One can also define circumference and length differently, such that length is the sum of the distance in each axis, this gives you a different and interesting set of geometry also. The terms length and circumference are most certainly a matter of definition, see here http://taxicabgeometry.net/geometry/circles.html – Vality Apr 10 '14 at 08:26
  • One can make a similar proof of the false Pythagorean theorem that $a + b = c$ (instead of $a^2 + b^2 = c^2$). – asmeurer Apr 12 '14 at 01:33
  • Vi Hart made a very clear proof on this here.

    The reason is the area of that shape approaches the circle but the perimeter does not (it's always 4)

    – Dylan Apr 12 '14 at 18:45
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    To recap: That shape is NOT a circle. It's an infinite fractal with the area of a circle and perimeter of a square. – Dylan Apr 12 '14 at 19:02
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    @Dylan Dang: "Vi Hart" and "proof" does not compute in my mind. – user2345215 Apr 16 '14 at 21:00
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    @user2345215 What don't you like about her? – Dylan May 12 '14 at 22:09
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Visualization can be misleading when working with alternating series. A classical example is \begin{align*} \ln 2=&\frac11-\frac12+\frac13-\frac14+\;\frac15-\;\frac16\;+\ldots,\\ \frac{\ln 2}{2}=&\frac12-\frac14+\frac16-\frac18+\frac1{10}-\frac1{12}+\ldots \end{align*} Adding the two series, one finds \begin{align*}\frac32\ln 2=&\left(\frac11+\frac13+\frac15+\ldots\right)-2\left(\frac14+\frac18+\frac1{12}+\ldots\right)=\\ =&\frac11-\frac12+\frac13-\frac14+\;\frac15-\;\frac16\;+\ldots=\\ =&\ln2. \end{align*}

Start wearing purple
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Here's how to trick students new to calculus (applicable only if they don't have graphing calculators, at that time):

$0$. Ask them to find inverse of $x+\sin(x)$, which they will unable to. Then,

$1$. Ask them to draw graph of $x+\sin(x)$.

$2$. Ask them to draw graph of $x-\sin(x)$

$3$. Ask them to draw $y=x$ on both graphs.

Here's what they will do :

enter image description here

$4$. Ask them, "What do you conclude?". They will say that they are inverses of each other. And then get very confused.

evil999man
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    @Alittlelime to be fair... I think it's a little heavily downvoted. – Cruncher Apr 07 '14 at 20:15
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    Perhaps you all are taking it too seriously. – evil999man Apr 08 '14 at 03:30
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    Actually these downvotes bother me more than the answer. The redaction or tone might have been unfortunate, but the example is not bad. – leonbloy Apr 08 '14 at 21:07
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    I don't understand why this is downvoted. I think this is by far the best answer so far. All the others are either well-known or rely on algebraic manipulations which are wrong. – Ruben Apr 09 '14 at 04:27
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    I'm with leonbloy and Mon Kee Poo, I think that this is a valid example, written in a fun tone. No need to enrage. – rubik Apr 09 '14 at 19:17
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    So, what is the inverse of x + sin x? – Vincent Apr 10 '14 at 10:59
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    @Vincent It cannot be expressed in terms of mathematical functions we know of. Although you can define it to be $Bat(x)$ where $Bat(x+sin(x))=x$ – evil999man Apr 10 '14 at 11:20
  • $x = y + \sin(y)$... – daviewales Apr 12 '14 at 13:05
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    Forget calculus; students who make this mistake need to work on their drawing skills. – Théophile Apr 22 '14 at 20:05
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    A good drawing of the graphs shows that the two functions don't look even remotely like inverses of each other. Therefore, I agree with @Théophile. – Matti P. Jul 25 '19 at 11:42
  • You are correct, Matti. The equations here would have to be $y=x \pm sin(x+y)$ for it to be symmetric along x=y. But implicitly defined. – vallev Sep 12 '23 at 17:44