It is Rudin excercise 10.4 where we aim to prove $\sigma(xy)\cup\{0\} = \sigma(yx)\cup \{0\}$ for elements $x,y\in A$ a Banach-algebra.( $\sigma$ being the spectrum)
In (a) we prove that $e-yx$ invertible $\Leftrightarrow e-xy$ invertible.
Following the hint: Put $z= (e-xy)^{-1}$, write $z$ as geometric series (assume $\left\|x\right\| < 1, \left\|y\right\|< 1$), and use the identity $(xy)^n = x(yx)^{n-1}y$ to obtain a finite formula $(e-yx)^{-1}$ in terms of $x,y,z $. Then show that this formula works without any restrictions on $\left\|x\right\|$ or $\left\|y\right\|$.
Ok, so lets put
\begin{align*} z = (e-xy)^{-1} &= \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} (xy)^k = e+\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} (xy)^k\\ & =e + \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}x(yx)^{k-1}y = e+ x(e-yx)^{-1}y \end{align*}
Is this right? But I dont see how i can single out out $(e-yx)^{-1}$. And how to make this work without restrictions on $\left\|x\right\|$ or $\left\|y\right\|$?
And second (b) I want to show that if $\lambda\neq 0$ and $\lambda \in \sigma(xy)$ then $\lambda \in \sigma(yx)$. Thus $\sigma(xy)\cup\{0\} = \sigma(yx)\cup \{0\}$. Then also, how do we see that $\sigma(xy)$ doesn't have to be equal to $\sigma(yx)$.
Thanks for tips and suggestions.