I presented the CF of $VW$ with $V\sim N(\mu_1,\sigma_1^2)$ and $W \sim N(\mu_2,\sigma_2^2)$ under different assumptions below.
$V, W$ have the same variance and are independent
Let $V\sim N(\mu_1,\sigma_1^2), W \sim N(\mu_2,\sigma_1^2)$ be two independent normally distributed random variables with the same variances. Then, their product can be written as
$$VW= C \big( Z_1^2-Z_2^2 \big)$$
in which $Z_1$ and $Z_2$ are independent and given by
$$Z_1=\frac{V+W}{\sqrt{2}\sigma_1} \sim N \left (A:=\frac{\mu_1+\mu_2}{\sqrt{2}\sigma_1},1 \right)$$ $$Z_2=\frac{V-W}{\sqrt{2}\sigma_1}\sim N \left (B:=\frac{\mu_1-\mu_2}{\sqrt{2}\sigma_1},1 \right )$$
with $C:=\frac{\sigma_1^2}{2}.$
Note that each of $Z^2_1$ and $Z^2_2$ has a noncentral chi square.
Hence, the characteristic function of $ VW $ is the product of the ones of $ C Z_1^2 $ and $ -C Z_1^2 $, which is
$$\varphi_{VW}(t)=\frac{\exp\left(\frac{iA^2 C t}{1-2iC t}\right)}{(1-2iC t)^{1/2}} \times \frac{\exp\left(\frac{-iB^2 C t}{1+2iC t}\right)}{(1+2iC t)^{1/2}}=\frac{\exp\left(\frac{iA^2 C t}{1-2iC t}-\frac{iB^2 C t}{1+2iC t}\right)}{(1+4C^2 t^2)^{1/2}}. $$
In particular, when $V, W $ follow the standard normal distribution, i.e., $\mu_1=0, \mu_1=0, \sigma^2_1=1, \sigma^2_2=1$, then $A=B=0$, $C=\frac{1}{2}$, and we get the nice formula:
$$\frac 1{\sqrt{1+2t^2}}. $$
$ \fbox{For your specific question:}$, $V=\frac{X}{2}-Y$ and $W=\frac{Y}{2}$, so $\mu_1=-1, \mu_1=\frac{1}{2}, \sigma^2_1=\sigma^2_2=\frac{1}{4}$. Thus, $A=-\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$, $B=-\frac{3}{\sqrt{2}}$, and $C=\frac{1}{8}$.
$V, W$ are independent
If $V\sim N(\mu_1,\sigma_1^2), W \sim N(\mu_2,\sigma_2^2)$ are two independent normally distributed random variables, then we can apply the above formula for $VW'$ appearing below:
$$VW=\frac{\sigma_2}{\sigma_1} \times VW'$$
in which $V\sim N(\mu_1,\sigma_1^2), W'= \frac{\sigma_1}{\sigma_2} W\sim N(\frac{\sigma_1}{\sigma_2}\mu_2,\sigma_1^2).$
$V, W$ have the same variances and follow a joint normal distribution (can be dependent)
If $V\sim N(\mu_1,\sigma_1^2), W \sim N(\mu_2,\sigma_1^2)$ are two normally distributed random variables with covariance $\sigma_{12}$, then we can use a similar method to obtain the CF by
$$VW=C_1Z_1^2-C_2Z_2^2$$
with
$$A=\frac{\mu_1+\mu_2}{\sqrt{4C_1}}, B=\frac{\mu_1-\mu_2}{\sqrt{4C_2}},
C_1= \frac{\sigma_1^2+\sigma_{12}}{2}, C_2= \frac{\sigma_1^2-\sigma_{12}}{2}.$$
General case: $V, W$ have a joint normal distribution
If $V\sim N(\mu_1,\sigma_1^2), W \sim N(\mu_2,\sigma_2^2)$ are two normally distributed random variables with covariance $\sigma_{12}$, then we can apply a similar method for $VW'$ appearing below:
$\frac{\sigma_2}{\sigma_1} \times VW',$
with
$$VW'=C_1Z_1^2-C_2Z_2^2$$
in which $V\sim N(\mu_1,\sigma_1^2), W'= \frac{\sigma_1}{\sigma_2} W\sim N(\frac{\sigma_1}{\sigma_2}\mu_1,\sigma_1^2)$, and $\sigma'_{12}=\frac{\sigma_1}{\sigma_2}\sigma_{12}$.
Remark: Let $U$ and $V$ have a bivaraite normal distribution and have the same variance, then $U+V$ and $U-V$ are independent (the means can be different and they can be dependent); see here for a proof.
(1) If this equals zero, then $\text{Cov}(X, Y) = 2$, which you've neglected to mention, and in which case $f_{X,Y} = f_X f_Y$ does not hold in your integral computation.
(2) On the other hand, if $X$ and $Y$ are instead independent, then $X/2-Y$ and $Y$ are not independent (but this doesn't impact the rest of your integral computation since you haven't used that fact).
– angryavian Dec 29 '23 at 02:30