The observation in this answer and this comment suggest the following:
If $R$ is a domain and $f \in R[x]$ is monic and not a unit in $R[[x]]$, then if $f$ is irreducible in $R[x]$ it is also irreducible in $R[[x]]$.
Is this true, and if so how do we prove it? It doesn't seem obvious.
The statement when $R$ is a field seems trivial, since if $f$ is not a unit as a power series it is always reducible, since it has a zero constant term and so it can be factored as some power of $x$ times another polynomial.