I am claiming that $$\forall xP(x) \vee \neg \forall yP(y)$$ is a tautology, since if we denote $\varphi = \forall xP(x)$ and we know that $(\varphi \vee \neg\varphi)$ is a tautology in propositional logic and is equivalent to our given formula then the given formula is a tautology.
However, my text says that it is not a tautology.
I can't find a way to show that this formula is indeed not a tautology.