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The stokes theorem for relating flux and work integrals is quite intuitive but what I'm having trouble with is understanding the dS symbol. From what I understand, the differential can be expanded such that the dS becomes ndA thus allowing us to compute the curl over the boundary region. It was also explained in lecture however that if our surface is parametrized, this dS can instead be expanded to $$\| r_u \times r_v \|dA $$ where u,v are the variables in the parametrization of our surface. This therefore lets us rewrite the normal vector n as $$ \frac{r_u \times r_v}{\| r_u \times r_v \|}$$ and thus we can cancel out the norms leaving simply the cross of both partial derivatives (the normal of the surface). The problem becomes a matter of knowing when to normalize or not. Consider the following example:

"Find $\int{Fdr}$ where C is a circle of radius 2 in the plane $x+y+z=6$ centred at $(2,3,1)$ and oriented ccw from above. Given $F=\langle 2y,-x,y-x\rangle$"

Clearly the normal for this region is $\langle 1,1,1 \rangle$ therefore without parametrizing I would simply plug in the unit normal $\langle 1,1,1 \rangle /\sqrt{3}$ into the stokes theorem and compute over the region. However, if instead I decided to do the parametrization $r(u,v)=(u,v,1-u-v)$, the normal obtained by the cross product of partial derivatives also gives $\langle 1,1,1 \rangle$, but by extension of the previously mentioned expansion of dS, I don't have to normalize? I'm not sure what I'm overlooking but if anyone can clear up what I'm not understand that would be great!

Didier
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aort01
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1 Answers1

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The integral $\int_C F\,dr$ is a line integral and does not require the normal to a surface when evaluated directly. Use an arbitrary parametrization $[a,b]\ni t\mapsto r(t)$ of the curve $C$ and trust your calculus: $$ \int_C F\,dr=\int_a^b F(r(t))\cdot\frac{dr}{dt}\,dt\,. $$ The integrand is a dot product of two vectors. Can you proceed? Once you calculated that you can match it with the surface integral of curl $F$. This will bring you in to a position to self-answer the original question. One more thing: how many surfaces can you choose to perform that exercise? Obviously you choose one that is as simple as possible.

To approach the surface integral directly you can parametrize the surface $S$ by $$ [c,d]\times[e,f]\ni (u,v)\mapsto s(u,v)\,. $$ The normal vector to $S$ is $s_u\times s_v$ (cross product of partial derivatives). The surface element is $$ dS=\|s_u\times s_u\|\,du\,dv $$ and we use it to calculate the total area of the surface. See a concrete example here.

The unit normal is of course $$ \mathbf{n}=\frac{s_u\times s_u}{\|s_u\times s_u\|}\,. $$ Stokes says $$ \int_C F\,dr=\int_S {\rm curl\,}F\cdot\mathbf{n}\,dS\,. $$ (Take an $F$ that satisfies ${\rm curl\, F}=\mathbf{n}\,.$ Its flux is constant equal to one on $S$ and the RHS must therefore be the total area of $S\,.$) Put back the definitions to get $$\tag{1} \int_a^b F(r(t))\cdot\frac{dr}{dt}\,dt=\int_c^d\int_e^f{\rm curl}F(s(u,v))\cdot (s_u\times s_v)\,du\,dv\,. $$

The rules to remember are the following:

  • In formula (1) you dont't normalize the normal vector $(s_u\times s_v)$ because $\|s_u\times s_v\|$ has cancelled out and $s_u\times s_v$ needs to scale with the parametrization to ensure independence of that integral under a re-parametrization (change of variables).

  • When your problem has enough symmetry to see that curl$\,F\cdot\mathbf{n}$ is constant on $S$ then you just have to figure out the surface of $S$ and multiply it with that constant. In that case you normalize $\mathbf{n}$ of course.

In your example $$ F=\begin{pmatrix} 2y\\-x\\y-x\end{pmatrix}\,,\quad S=\{x+y+z=6\} $$ the second method is smarter:

curl$\,F\cdot\mathbf{n}=\color{red}{\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}}\left(\begin{smallmatrix}1\\1\\-3\end{smallmatrix}\right)\cdot\left(\begin{smallmatrix}1\\1\\1\end{smallmatrix}\right)=-\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$ and the area of the surface (disk with radius $2$) is $4\pi\,.$ Therefore, both sides of (1) should give $-\frac{4\pi}{\sqrt{3}}\,.$

To do all calculations required in (1) explicitly I suggest a simpler example wich contains all essentials: $$ F=\begin{pmatrix}y\\-x\\0\end{pmatrix}\,,\quad S=\{z=0\}\,,\quad C=\{x^2+y^2=4\}\,. $$

curl$\,F\cdot\mathbf{n}=\left(\begin{smallmatrix}0\\0\\-2\end{smallmatrix}\right)\cdot\left(\begin{smallmatrix}0\\0\\1\end{smallmatrix}\right)=-2$ so that both sides of (1) should be $-8\pi\,.$ The LHS is $$\int_0^{2\pi}F\cdot\left(\begin{smallmatrix}-2\sin\varphi\\2\cos\varphi\\0\end{smallmatrix}\right)\,d\varphi=\int_0^{2\pi}-4(\sin^2\varphi+\cos^2\varphi)\,d\varphi=-8\pi\,.$$ Using the parametrization $[0,2]\times[0,2\pi)\ni(r,\varphi)\mapsto\left(\begin{smallmatrix}r\cos\varphi\\r\sin\varphi\\0\end{smallmatrix}\right)$ the RHS is seen to be$$\int_0^2\int_0^{2\pi}-2\,\color{red}{r}\,dr\,d\varphi=-8\pi\,.$$ The highlighed $\color{red}{r}$ in that integral is from the unnormalized $(s_u\times s_v)$ in that particular parametrization.

Kurt G.
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  • I have a question which relates back to my initial problem. If we choose such a parametrization where both variables u and v represent x and y, the normal that gets spit out by the cross product of the partialderiatvies is the same normal you'd get from taking say a gradient (in my example above it was a plane). I'm having trouble understanding how one must be normalized but the other doesn't have to be to get an equivalent flux – aort01 Apr 24 '23 at 17:58
  • I think it is time to fully carry out all calculations in one concrete example. Let me tell you this: as I have shown in the final formula the normalization of the normal vector to unit length drops out by a cancellation. This fact makes the integral independent (as it must) under a variable change from $u,v$ to, say, $2u,2v$. Please edit your question with details to better address them if necessary. – Kurt G. Apr 24 '23 at 18:22