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The map $f:\varepsilon_{1}\rightarrow\mathbb{N}$ which I am trying to define has to send $\varepsilon_{0}$ to some natural number. Since $\varepsilon_{0}=\omega\uparrow^{2}\omega$, a potential candidate is $f(\varepsilon_{0})=P_{f(f(\omega))}=P_{f(3)}=P_{8}=19$ (from the calculations for small ordinals below).

More generally, $f((\omega\uparrow^{n}\alpha)\cdot k) = P_{f^{n}(\alpha)}^{k}$, where $n,k$ are finite, $f^{n}$ is simply $f$ composed with itself $n$ times, and $P_{i}$ denotes the $i$-th prime.

Some small ordinals will be mapped as follows: $f(0)=1$, $f(1)=f(\omega\uparrow^{1}0)=P_{f(0)}=P_{1}=2$, and more generally, $f(m)=f((\omega\uparrow^{1}0)\cdot m)=2^{m}$, $m\ge 1$. Finally, $f(\omega) = f(\omega\uparrow^{1}1)=P_{f(1)}=P_{2}=3$.

Am I going in the right direction?


UPDATE: Something bothers me: $f$ may not well defined because the $\uparrow$ does not produce a unique notation. For example, $\omega=\omega\uparrow^{1} 1 = \omega\uparrow^{2} 1$. Is there a way to avoid this pitfall? Perhaps, when an ordinal $\alpha$ can be denoted by several expressions, we take the smallest of the resulting numbers after applying $f$ to each of the expressions denoting $\alpha$? For example, $f(\omega)=f(\omega\uparrow^{1}1)$. Is this a correct argument to get out of the problem?


UPDATE: I am not sure I am using $\uparrow$ correctly: for example $\omega\uparrow^{1}\omega = \omega^{\omega}$. Then $\omega\uparrow^{2}\omega = \underbrace{\omega\uparrow^{1}(\omega\uparrow^{1}(\omega\uparrow^{1}\omega\cdots}_{\omega}=\underbrace{\omega^{\omega^{\omega^{...}}}}_{\omega}=\varepsilon_{0}$. But, what is $\omega\uparrow^{3}\omega$? $\omega\uparrow^{3}\omega=\underbrace{\omega\uparrow^{2}(\omega\uparrow^{2}(\omega\uparrow^{2}\omega\cdots}_{\omega}=\underbrace{\omega\uparrow^{1}(\omega\uparrow^{1}(\omega\uparrow^{1}\omega\cdots}_{\omega\uparrow^{2}\omega}\stackrel{?}{=}\underbrace{\omega^{\omega^{\omega^{...}}}}_{\varepsilon_{0}}=\;?$

This seems bigger than $\varepsilon_{1}$...In fact I am beginning to think it depends on how $\uparrow$ is defined, and there may be several ways to do so.

John
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  • Are you only interested in completely explicit bijections? – Zoe Allen Mar 05 '23 at 23:03
  • Yes, that is what I am trying to do for $\varepsilon_{1}$. Much in the manner that one may say that the bijection $h:\varepsilon_{0}\rightarrow\mathbb{N}$ defined by $h(\omega^{\alpha}\cdot k)=P_{f(\alpha)}^{k}$ and $f(\beta+\gamma)=f(\beta)\cdot f(\gamma)$, is explicit. – John Mar 06 '23 at 00:26

2 Answers2

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I have encountered two problems when using $\uparrow$ notation.

The first is how to define the $\uparrow$ operator properly. As far as I can tell, there is not a widely accepted definition of it for transfinite ordinals. For example, $\omega\uparrow^{2}(\omega+1)$ may be equal to $\varepsilon_{0}^{\omega}$ or to $\varepsilon_{0}^{\varepsilon_{0}}$, depending on the definition (see This and this MSE questions and their answers for at least three different definitions).

The second problem is that there does not seem to be a unique way to write and ordinal using $\uparrow$. For example, $\omega^{\omega}=\omega\uparrow^{2}2 = \omega\uparrow^{1}\omega$. Therefore, this notation does not yield an analog of the Cantor Normal Form.

In summary, the $\uparrow$ operator is not the best tool to appropriately express ordinals- even those below $\varepsilon_{1}$. My initial hope was that we could express $\alpha<\varepsilon_{1}$ uniquely as a sum $(\omega\uparrow^{i_{1}}\alpha_{1})+\cdots+(\omega\uparrow^{i_{n}}\alpha_{n})$, where $i_{k}\in\{1,2\}$ for $1\le i\le n$, and $\alpha_{i}<\varepsilon_{1}$. No chance of it, it seems.

The silver lining is that the harder I tried to work out a proper definition of $\uparrow$, the more it seemed like I should be using Veblen functions (here).In fact, it is enough to use a slight modification of Veblen functions (See Lemma 8.7 here) in order to use the following theorem:

(Theorem 8.12 here): every ordinal $0<\alpha<\Gamma_{0}$ (Feferman–Schütte ordinal) can be expressed uniquely as $\alpha = \psi_{\alpha_{1}}(\beta_{1})+\cdots+\psi_{\alpha_{n}}(\beta_{n})$, $n\ge 1$ with $\alpha_{i},\beta_{i}<\psi_{\alpha_{i}}(\beta_{i})\leq\alpha$, $1\leq i\leq n$, and such that $\psi_{\alpha_{1}}(\beta_{1})\ge\cdots\ge\psi_{\alpha_{n}}(\beta_{n})$.

Therefore, we can do a bit better than simply answering the original question, and define an explicit bijection $f:\Gamma_{0}\rightarrow\mathbb{N}$. Consider the set $\mathbb{N}^{*}=\mathbb{N}\cup\{0\}$ and the Cantor pairing function $q:\mathbb{N}^{*}\times\mathbb{N}^{*}\rightarrow\mathbb{N}^{*}$ defined by $q(x,y) = \frac{1}{2}(x+y)(x+y+1)+x$. Let $P_{0}=2$, $P_{1} = 3$, etc. denote the prime numbers. Then

  1. $f(0) = 1$
  2. $f(\alpha) = \displaystyle\prod_{i=1}^{n}P_{q\left(f(\alpha_{i})-1,f(\beta_{i})-1\right)}$.

Note that $f(\alpha+\beta) = f(\alpha)\cdot f(\beta)$. The ordering of the natural number thus produced looks like this:

Natural number [position in the ordering]

$$\begin{aligned} 1\ [0] &≤ 2\ [1] ≤ 4\ [2] ≤ 8\ [3] ≤ 16\ [4] ≤ \ldots \\ &\quad≤ 3\ [ω] ≤ 6\ [ω+1] ≤ 12\ [\omega + 2] ≤ \ldots \\ &\quad≤ 9\ [ω\cdot 2] ≤ 18\ [\omega\cdot 2+1] ≤ 36\ [\omega\cdot 2+2] ≤ \ldots \\ &\quad≤ 17\ [\omega^{2}] ≤ \ldots \\ &\quad≤ \ldots \\ &≤ 7\ [\omega^{\omega}] ≤ \ldots ≤ 5\ [\varepsilon_{0}] ≤ \ldots\leq 25\ [\varepsilon_{0}\cdot 2]\leq\ldots ≤ 31\ [\varepsilon_{0}\cdot\omega] ≤ \ldots\leq 1993\ [\varepsilon_{0}^{2}]\leq\ldots\\ & ≤ 3313\ [\varepsilon_{0}^{\omega}] ≤ \ldots\ldots \leq 11\ [\varepsilon_{1}]\leq\ldots\ldots\leq 37\ [\varepsilon_{2}]\leq\ldots\ldots\leq 47\ [\varepsilon_{\varepsilon_{0}}]\leq\ldots\\ &\leq 29\ [\zeta_{0}]\leq\ldots\ldots\leq 13\ [\psi_{\omega}(0)]\leq\ldots\ldots\leq 71\ [\psi_{\varepsilon_{0}}(1)]\leq\ldots \end{aligned}$$

It is not difficult to write $f^{-1}$ explicitly. Also, we could use a different pairing function in the definition of $f$. For example, $q'(x,y) = 2^{x}(2y+1) - 1$. In this case $\omega$ will be mapped to $5$ and $\varepsilon_{0}$ to $3$, etc. Therefore, in this ordering $5$ will be less than 3.

Finally, I will briefly mention that if instead of defining $q$ above as the Cantor pairing function, we define it as $q:\{(1,0)\}\cup(\{0\}\times\mathbb{N})\rightarrow \mathbb{N}$ by $$q(x,y) = \begin{cases} x &\text{if $x=1$ or $x=y=0$}\\ y+1 &\text{otherwise} \end{cases}$$ then $f|_{\varepsilon_{1}}:\varepsilon_{1}\rightarrow\mathbb{N}$ is a bijection which produces the ordering

$$\begin{aligned} 1\ [0] &≤ 2\ [1] ≤ 4\ [2] ≤ \ldots \\ &\quad≤ 5\ [ω] ≤ 10\ [ω+1] ≤ 20\ [\omega + 2] ≤ \ldots \\ &\quad≤ 25\ [ω\cdot 2] ≤ 50\ [\omega\cdot 2+1] ≤ 100\ [\omega\cdot 2+2] ≤ \ldots \\ &\quad≤ 11\ [\omega^{2}] ≤ \ldots \\ &\quad≤ \ldots \\ &≤ 13\ [\omega^{\omega}] ≤ \ldots ≤ 3\ [\varepsilon_{0}] ≤ \ldots\leq 9\ [\varepsilon_{0}\cdot 2]\leq\ldots ≤ 7\ [\varepsilon_{0}\cdot\omega] ≤ \ldots\leq 29\ [\varepsilon_{0}^{2}]\leq\ldots\\ & ≤ 19\ [\varepsilon_{0}^{\omega}] ≤ \ldots\leq 109\ [\varepsilon_{0}^{\varepsilon_{0}}]\leq\ldots \end{aligned}$$

John
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Let f: ε1 → N be defined as follows:

f(0) = 1 f(1) = 2 f(ω) = 3 f(α↑β) = f(α)f(β) if α, β < ω f(ω↑β) = pβ where p is the βth prime

Conjecture: f can be uniquely extended to a function f: ε1 → N.

Lemma 1: f is well-defined on ordinals with unique ↑-notation. Proof: By induction on α. Base case and successor step follow from the definition of f.

Lemma 2: f preserves limit ordinals. Proof: For limit λ, define f(λ) = ∏f(α) where the product is over all α < λ. This is well-defined by Lemma 1 and finiteness of the product.

Lemma 3: f preserves addition. Proof: By induction on α and β. Base cases are clear, and for successor ordinals we have f(α+β) = f(α↑β+1) = f(α)f(α↑β) = f(α)f(β).

Theorem 1: f is defined on all of ε0. Proof: Follows from Lemmas 1-3. Every ordinal has unique notation or is a limit.

Theorem 2: f is bijective. Proof: Construct inverse g by inverting each prime exponent in f. Show g∘f and f∘g are the identity, using the system for resolving multiple notations to show g is well-defined.

Theorem 3: f has desired values on small ordinals. Proof: Check f(0), f(1), f(ω) directly from the definition of f.

Does this look like an appropriate frame?

—-update

Here's a proof that f is defined on all of ε0:

Basis: f is defined on 0, 1, and ω by the original definition. Inductive step:

If α is a successor ordinal, then f(α) is defined using the rule for successor ordinals in the definition of f. If α is a limit ordinal, take cases on its cofinality:

If cf(α) = ω, define f(α) using the ultralimit modification mentioned above. This is well-defined by the inductive hypothesis. If cf(α) is a regular cardinal > ω, f(α) is the product of f on initial segments of α, which converges by the inductive hypothesis.

This handles all cases, so by induction f is defined on all ordinals in ε0.

Anon Imus
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  • For example, if $\alpha=\omega^{\omega}$ it seems like $\prod_{\lambda<\alpha}f(\lambda)$ would be infinite. What am I not understanding of your definition? – John Mar 07 '23 at 17:54
  • You're right, there is an issue with the definition of f on limit ordinals as stated. The product ∏λ<αf(λ) will be infinite if α is a limit of limit ordinals (like ωω). A fix for this would be to define f on limit ordinals λ with cofinality ω as follows:

    f(λ) = limn→∞ ∏α<λ,cf(α)=n f(α)

    This takes the limit of the products over initial segments of λ whose cofinality is a regular cardinal. With this modification, the definition of f should work for all ordinals in ε1. Does that help resolve the issue?

    – Anon Imus Mar 07 '23 at 18:36