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Suppose $M_1$ is an $n$-dimensional smooth manifold in $\mathbb{R}^m$, $n < m$. Suppose we have a diffeomorphism $f: \mathbb{R}^m\to\mathbb{R}^m$ that maps $M_1$ to the $n$-dimensional manifold $M_2$. I want to find the relation between the integral over $M_1$, $\int_{M_1}g(x)dV(x)$ to the integral over $M_2$. If $n = m$ then this is a familiar case for me, we just multiply by $|det(Df^{-1})|$ after substituting $x = f^{-1}(y)$. When $n < m$ I thought about using parameterization: Suppose $\Omega \subset \mathbb{R}^n,\varphi:\Omega \to M_1$. Then, $f \circ \varphi$ is a parameterization of $M_2$. Using the chain rule, $D(f \circ \varphi) = D(f)D(\varphi)$, so that an infinitesimal volume element is $dV(x) = \sqrt{\det(D\varphi ^TDf^TDfD\varphi)}du$, and: $$ \int_{M_2} g(x)dV(x) = \int_{\Omega}(g\circ f\circ\varphi)(u)\sqrt{\det(D\varphi ^TDf^TDfD\varphi)}du $$ but I cannot seem to relate this expression to the integral over $M_1$: $$ \int_{M_1}g(x)dV(x) = \int_{\Omega}(g\circ\varphi)(u)\sqrt{\det(D\varphi^TD\varphi)}du $$ How can I "pull out" $Df^TDf$ from the determinant and the square root?

Algo
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First, your uses of $M_1,M_2$ is confusing because you're mixing them up. Also, your function $g$ appears twice: first as a function on $M_1$, but then later on $M_2$. Which is it?

Anyway, I'll assume $g:M_2\to\Bbb{R}$, and $f:\Bbb{R}^m\to\Bbb{R}^m$ is a diffeomorphism which maps $M_1$ onto $M_2$, and $\phi:\Omega\subset\Bbb{R}^m\to \phi(\Omega)\subset M_1$ a parametrization. Then, given your coordinate calculation, you just multiply and divide by $\sqrt{\det D\phi^tD\phi}=\sqrt{\det \left\langle\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x^i},\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial x^j}\right\rangle}$ to get your answer. More explicitly, \begin{align} \int_{(f\circ \phi)(\Omega)}g(x)\,dV_{M_2}(x)&=\int_{\Omega}(g\circ (f\circ \phi))(u)\sqrt{\det (D\phi_u)^t(Df_{\phi(u)})^t(Df_{\phi(u)})D\phi_u}\,\,\,du\\ &=\int_{\Omega}(g\circ f)(\phi(u))\cdot J_f(\phi(u))\cdot \sqrt{\det (D\phi_u)^t(D\phi_u)}\,du\\ &=\int_{\phi(\Omega)}(g\circ f)(y)\cdot J_f(y)\,dV_{M_1}(y), \end{align} where \begin{align} J_f(\phi(u)):=\frac{\sqrt{\det (D\phi_u)^t(Df_{\phi(u)})^t(Df_{\phi(u)})D\phi_u}}{\sqrt{\det (D\phi_u)^t(D\phi_u)}}, \end{align} i.e the function $J_f:\phi(\Omega)\subset M_1\to\Bbb{R}$ is given as \begin{align} J_f(y)&=\frac{\sqrt{\det \left(D\phi_{\phi^{-1}(y)}\right)^t(Df_y)^t(Df_y)\left(D\phi_{\phi^{-1}(y)}\right)}}{\sqrt{\det \left(D\phi_{\phi^{-1}(y)}\right)^t\left(D\phi_{\phi^{-1}(y)}\right)}}. \end{align} You can now check by hand (an exercise in linear algebra/chain rule) that if you had started with a different $\phi$ in the beginning, then the map $J_f$ you get is actually the same: $J_f$ does not depend on the $\phi$, which is why I didn't include $\phi$ in the notation. Note that, both the numerator and denominator alone will depend on $\phi$, but their quotient does not, and this is why $J_f$ can actually be extended to a well-defined smooth function $M_1\to\Bbb{R}$.

Hence the change of variables formula is \begin{align} \int_{M_2}g\,dV_{M_2}&=\int_{M_1}(g\circ f)\cdot J_f\,dV_{M_1}. \end{align} Looks an awful lot like your usual change of variable formula doesn't it? Yes, the only difference is that the "Jacobian factor" $J_f$ is not as simple as you'd expect. But note that if you specialize to the case where $M_1,M_2$ are open subsets of $\Bbb{R}^m$ (and hence $n=m$), then this $J_f$ reduces exactly to $|\det Df|$, which is the usual thing we learn. More abstractly, $J_f$ is the Radon-Nikodym derivative of two different Riemannian volume measures on $M_1$: \begin{align} J_f&=\frac{dV_{f^*\delta_{\Bbb{R}^m}}}{dV_{M_1}}, \end{align} where $dV_{f^*\delta_{\Bbb{R}^m}}$ is the Riemannian measure induced on $M_1$ by the Riemannian metric $f^*(\delta_{\Bbb{R}^m})$ (with $\delta_{\Bbb{R}^m}$ being the usual Riemannian metric on the ambient $\Bbb{R}^m$). See Change of variables in integration on manifolds: what's wrong? for a similar discussion.

peek-a-boo
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    And applying this idea more generally you can also formulate a "curved Fubini's theorem" as described in this answer – peek-a-boo Dec 17 '22 at 09:18
  • Thank you for your answer. But why don't we have equality $\phi(\Omega) = M_1$ and only $\phi(\Omega) \subset M_1$? – Algo Dec 17 '22 at 21:05
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    @Algo parametrizations only cover part of the manifold in general, for example spherical coordinates only covers the sphere minutes half a great circle. To cover the entire manifold you need more parametrizations. – peek-a-boo Dec 18 '22 at 01:07
  • So how would we complete the proof? Because the integral over $\phi(\Omega)$ is not $M_1$. – Algo Dec 18 '22 at 07:46
  • Regarding the "Liner Algebra/Change of Variables proof", would it be okay to go like that: Suppose $\psi$ is a different parameterization of $M_1$. Define $h = \phi^{-1} \circ \psi$. Then $\psi = \phi \circ h$. Now we express $D\psi$ as $D\phi Dh$ and then $J_f(y)$ with $\psi$ instead of $\phi$ remains the same as $J_f(y)$ with $\phi$? – Algo Dec 18 '22 at 07:46
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    @Algo you need to recall that one way to define integrals over manifolds is using a partition of unity: take a countable collection of parametrizations ${(\phi_i,\Omega_i)}{i=1}^{\infty}$ such that the union of the images covers $M_1$. Then, fix a partition of unity ${\zeta_i}$ subordinate to this cover. Then, $\int{M_2}g=\int_{M_2}\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}\zeta_i\circ f^{-1}\cdot g,dV_{M_2}=\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}\int_{M_2}\zeta_i\circ f^{-1}\cdot g,dV_{M_2}=\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}\int_{f(\phi_i(\Omega_i))}\zeta_i\circ f^{-1}\cdot g,dV_{M_2}$. – peek-a-boo Dec 18 '22 at 09:53
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    where the last equality is because ${\zeta_i\circ f^{-1}}$ is a partition of unity on $M_2$ subordinate to ${f\circ \phi_i(\Omega_i)}$. In other words, the partition of unity allows you to "split up" your function $g$ into many pieces $\zeta_i\circ f^{-1}\cdot g$, such that each piece is supported inside the image of a parametrization so you only need to prove it in that case. But we already did this, so we're done. Alternatively, you can just prove an abstract change of variables theorem for Lebesgue integrals, then just invoke the Radon-Nikodym theorem as I said at the end. – peek-a-boo Dec 18 '22 at 09:57