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It is not hard to show, by induction on $m\in\mathbb N$, that there exist a sequence $(B_n)_{n\geq0}$ of rational numbers such that

$$\sum_{k=1}^nk^m=\frac1{m+1}\sum_{k=0}^m\binom{m+1}kB_k\,n^{m+1-k},\ \style{font-family:inherit;}{\text{for all}}\ n\geq1\,.$$

These are the Bernoulli numbers of the second kind, that is, $B_1=+1/2$. A corollary of the proof (by induction) of the fact above is a recurrence formula for such numbers $B_n$, which are known as Bernoulli numbers:

$$\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\binom nkB_k=0\,.\tag{$\ast$}$$

On the other hand, there are a number of explicit formulae for $B_n$, which are obtained using the equality $\frac x{e^x-1}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty B_n\,\frac{x^n}{n!}$; see here and here. For example:

$$B_n=\sum_{k=0}^n\frac1{k+1}\sum_{r=0}^k(-1)^r\binom krr^n\,.\tag{$\ast\ast$}$$

Is there some clever way to manipulate the recurrence $(\ast)$ in order to obtain $(\ast\ast)$?

  • ??? How is (*) true for $n=1$ ? We have then $ \binom10 \cdot B_0 = 0 $ but it must be $ \binom10 \cdot B_0 = 1 $ – Gottfried Helms Jul 25 '13 at 21:23
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    @GottfriedHelms No, $B_0=1$. – Pedro Jul 25 '13 at 22:02
  • It seems, I'll never understand, why in many openly available places this formula is not stated as any other mathematical formula with an explicite statement for the range of its validity. – Gottfried Helms Jul 25 '13 at 22:07
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    A simple correction of (*) to make it a fully valid formula is $ \displaystyle \ \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \binom nk B_k = \delta_{n,1} \ $ . I'll try to generate an answer based on this... – Gottfried Helms Jul 25 '13 at 22:24
  • @GottfriedHelms Ah, the formula is true for $n>1$; yes. Do you think you can work out something out of what I did? – Pedro Jul 25 '13 at 22:55
  • @GottfriedHelms Note that the equation is then ${\bf B}\star {\bf 1}={\bf B^*}$ where the latter are the Bernoulli numbers of the second kind, i.e. $-1/2$ changed to $1/2$. – Pedro Jul 25 '13 at 23:46
  • @PeterTamaroff: True, that strange use of the Bernoulli-formulae was the motivation for my very first study of number-theory in a more serious way. The first result was http://go.helms-net.de/math/pascal/bernoulli_en.pdf where that identities, the Faulhaber sums of powers rules and more occured in a matrix-language. I'd like to learn your notation/method too and how this converts into each other... – Gottfried Helms Jul 25 '13 at 23:56
  • @GottfriedHelms I would be glad if you did! I haven't been able to make good use of it, yet. – Pedro Jul 25 '13 at 23:57
  • @Peter:I'll come back to this tomorrow. Here it is already late after midnight now... – Gottfried Helms Jul 26 '13 at 00:13
  • @PeterTamaroff I confess that I didn't go through the details of your solution. I became quite satisfied with your notion of "binomial convolution", even if (as you claim) this is not enough to solve the recurrence. Of course, if you want to me to unchoose your solution, just tell me... – Matemáticos Chibchas Jul 26 '13 at 04:17
  • @MatemáticosChibchas Hmm... I have gotten back on track now. Just give me a while (read: days, weeks?) and maybe I can get to a solution. Next time, please make sure you make explicit which Bernoulli numbers you're talking about! =) – Pedro Jul 26 '13 at 04:21
  • The relation between $ B_k$ and $ B^_k$ could be expressed as $ B_k = (-1)^k B^_k $ but I do not know how this would be expressed in the convolution-notation – Gottfried Helms Jul 26 '13 at 05:26
  • @PeterTamaroff Count on that! I am going to dig into the details on the "not hard to do" proof by induction in order to state the result in the right way. I did copy-paste from Mathworld, which does not specify the range of validity, as Gottfried pointed out before. And take your time (I am also a busy man!) – Matemáticos Chibchas Jul 26 '13 at 05:33
  • @GottfriedHelms OK, I think I have Faulhaber's formula in the tip of my fingers. I need some minor corrections on a formula! drumroll – Pedro Jul 26 '13 at 22:12
  • @GottfriedHelms Yes! There it is, the proof of Faulhaber's formula! – Pedro Jul 27 '13 at 00:21

2 Answers2

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[20-08] I will add something that sheds light on why the latter works out nicely. In what follows we provide a proof of Faulhaber's Formula using the operation of binomial convolution on sequences of real numbers (in fact, we needn't worry about the whole real numbers, but merely the rational numbers). This operation arises naturally when multiplying (formal) exponential generating series of the form $$\sum_{n\geqslant 0}\gamma_n \frac{z^n}{n!}$$ and collecting powers of $z$. The problem of finding $1^n+2^n+\cdots+m^n$ motivates us to look into each of the sequences $1,j,j^2,j^3,\ldots$ that have the EGF $e^{jz}$. Thus the sum has EGF $$\sum_{j=1}^m e^{jz}=e^z\frac{e^{mz}-1}{e^{z}-1}=\frac{e^{mz}-1}z \frac{(-z)}{e^{-z}-1}$$

It is easy to obtain explicit generating sequences for $\dfrac{e^{mz}-1}z$; indeed $$\frac{e^{mz}-1}z=\sum_{n\geqslant 0}\frac{m^{n+1}}{n+1}\frac{z^n}{n!}$$

In particular when $m=1$ we get the Harmonic numbers generate $$H(z)=\frac{e^{z}-1}z$$

The Bernoulli numbers arise naturally as the inverses of the Harmonic numbers, in the sense that $$B(z)=\frac{z}{e^z-1}=\sum_{n\geqslant 0}B_n\frac{z^n}{n!}$$

The first equation then gives Faulhaber's Formula immediately: we have $$\sum_{j=1}^m e^{jz}=e^z\frac{e^{mz}-1}{e^{z}-1}=B(-z)\frac{e^{mz}-1}z $$

Equating coefficients and using the convolution gives $$\sum_{j=1}^m j^n =\sum_{k=0}^n\binom nk (-1)^k B_k\frac{m^{n-k+1}}{n-k+1}$$

This is the shortest proof I know of. We work things formally, without worrying about convergence. We use the fact that a sequence with non-zero first term $a_0$ admits a unique inverse (as is the case of the Harmonic numbers). This is proven by observing the convolution gives a recurrence for the terms of this inverse.

The above is very similar to what will follow. The first lemma gives $$H(z)e^{jz}=\frac{e^{(j+1)z}-1}z-\frac{e^{jz}-1}z$$ and the second gives $$e^z\frac{e^{mz}-1}z=\frac{e^{(m+1)z}-1}z-\frac{e^{z}-1}z$$ Telescoping gives $$H(z)\sum\limits_{j = 1}^m {{e^{jz}}} = \frac{{{e^{(m + 1)z}} - {e^z}}}{z} = {e^z}\frac{{{e^{mz}} - 1}}{z}$$

Thus $$\sum\limits_{j = 1}^m {{e^{jz}}} = \frac{{{e^{(m + 1)z}} - {e^z}}}{z} = {e^z}B\left( z \right)\frac{{{e^{mz}} - 1}}{z}$$ and using $B(-z)=e^zB(z)$ $-$ this $1\star B=\mu B$ which was quite ugly to prove without EGFs $-$ finishes things to give Faulhaber's Formula $$\sum\limits_{j = 1}^m {{e^{jz}}} = B\left( { - z} \right)\frac{{{e^{mz}} - 1}}{z}$$


DEF Let ${\bf x} =(x_0,x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_n,\ldots)$, ${\bf y}=(y_0,y_1,y_2,\ldots,y_n,\ldots)$ be sequences. We define a new sequence, their binomial convolution, by the formula $$\left({\bf x}\star {\bf y}\right)_n:=\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k}x_ky_{n-k}$$

OBS The binomial convolution is associative and commutative.

DEF We define the special sequences $\mu=(1,-1,1,-1,1,-1,1,\ldots)$, ${\bf 1 }=(1,1,1,1,1,\ldots)$, ${\rm id}=(1,0,0,0,0,0,\ldots)$. Note then that $$\mu\star {\bf 1} =\rm{id}$$ $${\rm id}\star {\bf x}={\bf x}$$

We're ready to prove the

THM (Inversion formula) Let ${\bf x} =(x_0,x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_n,\ldots)$, ${\bf y}=(y_0,y_1,y_2,\ldots,y_n,\ldots)$ be sequences. Then ${\bf x}\star {\bf 1}={\bf y}$ if, and only if ${\bf x}={\bf y}\star \mu$.

P By the above $$\begin{align}{\bf x}\star {\bf 1}&={\bf y}\\({\bf x}\star {\bf 1})\star \mu&={\bf y}\star \mu\\{\bf x}\star ({\bf 1}\star\mu)&={\bf y}\star \mu\\{\bf x}\star {\rm id }&={\bf y}\star \mu\\{\bf x}&={\bf y}\star \mu\end{align}$$

and the other direction is analogous.


[7-28] I have decided to define the Bernoulli numbers as the inverse of the Harmonic numbers, since this puts in evidence their importance when proving Faulhaber's formula. I will keep looking for a proof of the closed form formula.

DEF Denote by $\bf H$ the Harmonic numbers $\left(1,\frac 1 2,\frac 13,\frac 14 \ldots\right)$. We define the Bernoulli numbers by $${\bf H}\star {\bf B}=\rm id$$

This is well-defined since inverses are unique. A few values are $$\left(1,-\dfrac 1 2,\dfrac 1 6,0,-\dfrac 1 {30},0,\dfrac1{42},0,-\dfrac{1}{30},\ldots\right)$$

OBS The definition says that $\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n+1}kB_k=[n=0]$ and ${\bf B}\star {\bf 1}={\bf B}+[n=1]$

PROP For $n\geqslant 1$ we have $B_{2n+1}=0$.

P (Credits to Rob) From ${\bf B}\star {\bf 1}={\bf B}+[n=1]$ we obtain by inversion that ${\bf B} ={\bf B}\star \mu+[n=1]\star \mu$. But $[n=1]\star \mu=-(-1)^nn$; so ${\bf B}\star \mu=B+\mu{\bf N}$. Since ${\bf x}\star \mu {\bf y}=\mu(\mu{\bf x}\star {\bf y})$ we obtain $\mu{\bf B}\star {\bf 1}=\mu{\bf B}+{\bf N}$. Now we write things explicitly $$\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n+1}{k}B_k=[n=0]\;\;,\;\;\sum_{k=0}^{m-1}\binom mk(-1)^kB_k=m$$

Thus by $m\mapsto n+1$ $$\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n+1}{k}B_k=[n=0]\;\;,\;\;\sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom {n+1}k(-1)^kB_k=n+1$$

Thus $$n+1-[n=0]=\sum_{k=0}^n\left((-1)^k-1\right)\binom{n+1}kB_k$$ and $n\mapsto 2n+1$ gives $$2n+2=\sum_{k=0}^{2n+1}\left((-1)^k-1\right)\binom{2n+2}kB_k$$ but the $k=1$ term is $-2\binom{2n+2}1\left(-\frac1 2\right)=2n+2$ so, since even terms vanish we get $$0=-2\sum_{k=1}^{n}\binom{2n+2}{2k+1}B_{2k+1}$$ and induction does the rest. $\blacktriangle$

COR The formula ${\bf B}\star{\bf 1}=\mu{\bf B}$ holds.

First, we have:

LEMMA1 Fix $j\geqslant 0$. Then, $$\left({\bf{H}} \star {j^k}\right)_n = \frac{{{{\left( {j + 1} \right)}^{n + 1}} - {j^{n + 1}}}}{{n + 1}}$$

P This follows from direct calculation and use of the binomial theorem.

LEMMA2 Fix $m$. Then $$\left( {1 \star \frac{{{m^{k + 1}}}}{{k + 1}}} \right)_n = \frac{{{{\left( {m + 1} \right)}^{n + 1}} - 1}}{{n + 1}}$$

P This should also be fairly obvious by integrating the binomial expansion and finding the appropriate constant of integration.

COR By the two previous lemmas: $$\left( {1 \star \frac{{{m^{k + 1}}}}{{k + 1}}} \right) = \sum\limits_{j = 1}^m {{{\left( {{\bf{H}} \star {j^k}} \right)}_n}} $$

Now we can prove

THM (Faulhaber's Formula) $$\left( {\mu {\bf{B}} \star \frac{{{m^{k + 1}}}}{{k + 1}}} \right) = \sum\limits_{j = 1}^m {{j^n}} $$

P We have that $$\sum\limits_{j = 1}^m {{{\left( {{\bf{H}} \star {j^k}} \right)}_n}} = \left( {1 \star \frac{{{m^{k + 1}}}}{{k + 1}}} \right)$$

By the distributive property $$\left( {1 \star \frac{{{m^{k + 1}}}}{{k + 1}}} \right) = {\bf{H}} \star \sum\limits_{j = 1}^m {{j^n}} $$ and after multiplication by $\bf B$, this is $$\eqalign{ & {\bf{B}} \star \left( {1 \star \frac{{{m^{k + 1}}}}{{k + 1}}} \right) = \sum\limits_{j = 1}^m {{j^n}} \cr & \left( {\mu {\bf{B}} \star \frac{{{m^{k + 1}}}}{{k + 1}}} \right) = \sum\limits_{j = 1}^m {{j^n}} \cr} $$

as desired. $\blacktriangle$

Pedro
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  • After learning about dirichlet convolutions, I thought it might be fun to see if it could be useful to try and do this with power series, but never got around to it lol – Ethan Splaver Jul 24 '13 at 06:02
  • The relation between $ B_k$ and $ B^_k$ could be expressed as $ B_k = (-1)^k B^_k $ but I do not know how this would be expressed in the convolution-notation. But perhaps this gives another impulse ... – Gottfried Helms Jul 26 '13 at 05:27
  • @GottfriedHelms The correction has help me get back on track. In fact, I think I am close to a proof of Faulhaber's formula using only what I posted. – Pedro Jul 26 '13 at 17:16
  • That would be really good! Just go on! – Gottfried Helms Jul 26 '13 at 19:35
  • @GottfriedHelms I succeeded in proving Faulhaber's formula! =) – Pedro Jul 27 '13 at 00:30
  • Wow, geat job! (Just answering quickly on your ping, I've not yet read through it concisely - but it's nice to see this concept in action/with a worked example) – Gottfried Helms Jul 27 '13 at 03:47
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To avoid further editing to the other answer, I give you some details on the closed form formula of the Bernoulli numbers. Note that the Stirling numbers of the second kind which ounts the number of nonempty partitions in sets of size $k$ of a size $n$ set can be given explicitly by an inclusion exclusion arguement $-$ by counting of surjective functions (this is the proof I know, and it is not much complicated) $-$ as $$\left\{\begin{matrix}n\\k\end{matrix}\right\}=\frac 1 {k!}\sum_{j=0}^k\binom kj(-1)^{j-k}j^n$$

Thus the formula is $$B_n=\sum_{k=0}^n \frac{(-1)^k}{k+1}k!\left\{\begin{matrix}n\\k\end{matrix}\right\}$$

Moreover, if we define the Bernoulli polynomials as $$B_n(x)=\sum_{k=0}^n\binom nk B_k x^{n-k}$$ so that $B_n(0)=B_n$ we have to see if it is possible to prove things like $$\Delta {B_n}\left( x \right) = n{x^{n - 1}}$$ $${B_n}\left( x \right) = \sum\limits_{k = 0}^n {\frac{{{{\left( { - 1} \right)}^k}}}{{k + 1}}{\Delta ^n}{x^k}} $$ where $${\Delta ^n}{x^k} = \sum\limits_{j = 0}^n\binom nj {{{\left( { - 1} \right)}^{n - j}}{{\left( {x + j} \right)}^k}} $$

Note then that the special case $x=0$ gives the Stirling Number of the Second Kind, so $$B_n=B_n(0)=\sum_{k=0}^n \frac{(-1)^k}{k+1}k!\left\{\begin{matrix}n\\k\end{matrix}\right\}$$

is what you're after. Since EGFs have turned up, recall that the Bernoulli polynomials $B_n(t)$ have the exponential generating function $$\frac{ze^{tz}}{e^z-1}=\sum_{n\geqslant 0}B_n(t)\frac{z^n}{n!}$$

that is, using convolution, $$B_n(t)=\sum_{k=0}^n\binom nk B_k t^{n-k}$$

On the other hand, the Stirling numbers arise as $$\frac{(e^z-1)^k}{k!}=\sum_{n\geqslant 0}\left\{\begin{matrix}n\\k\end{matrix}\right\} \frac{z^n}{n!}$$

Surely this can clean up a road for a proof.

Pedro
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