Define
$$\mathbf{f}(s,t) = \begin{pmatrix} (b+a\cos s)\cos t \\ (b+a\cos s)\sin t \\ a\sin s \end{pmatrix},\ 0 < a < b,\ a,b \in \mathbb{R}$$
as the mapping from $\mathbb{R}^2$ to $\mathbb{R}^3$, and let $K$ be the range of $\mathbf{f}$.
Let $g(t) = \mathbf{f}(t,\lambda t)$ be a mapping from $\mathbb{R}^1$ to $K$.
Take $\lambda$ irrational. Show that $g(t)$ is a one-to-one mapping onto a dense subset of $K$.
This problem comes from Baby Rudin (specifically, Chapter 9, problem 12). This is not a homework problem. (It is related to an exam problem from an exam I took almost a year ago).
For the exam, we only needed to show that $g$ was one-to-one. We did not need to show that it was dense in $K$. Showing one-to-oneness is pretty easy. Assume that it is not, then you get a condition where $\cos (t+\lambda 2\pi k) = \cos t$, which cannot hold for any irrational value of $\lambda$.
Is there a clever way to show density, or does it have to just be done directly from the definition?