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Context:

Definition 2.1.18 (Automorphism group). Let $C$ be a category and let $X$ be an object of $C$. Then the set ${\rm Aut}_C(X) $of all isomorphisms $ X \to X$ in $C$ is a group with respect to composition in $C$ (Proposition 2.1.19), the automorphism group of $X$ in $C$.

Doubt:

The following statement is proved in the book:

2.1.19.2. Let $G$ be a group. Then there exists a category $C$ and an object $X$ in $C$ such that $G \cong {\rm Aut}_C(X)$

The following proof is given:

We consider the category $C$ that contains only a single object $X$. We set $\text{Mor}_C(X,X) := G$ and we define the composition in $C$ via the composition in $G$ by

$$ \circ : \text{Mor}_C(X,X) \times \text{Mor}_C(X,X) \to \text{Mor}_C(X,X)$$

$$(g,h) \to g \cdot h$$

A straight forward computation proves the proposition.

In the above proof, how do we know there exists such an object $X$ such that we are allowed to set $\text{Mor}_C(X,X) :=G$?


More details:

I can't really explain my doubt in this context itself because my knowlege in CT is not much but I will try using another issue as analogy.

So suppose we are talking about Groups. To define a group, we says it's a set with a binary operation. Now, but to say this, shouldn't we have defined what the set looks like (out of ZFC) before we talk about the binary operation?

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    We define it to be so. Categories aren't given from God, they are things we can define, much like we can define a set. So long as our selection of objects and morphisms satisfies the axioms, we can define a category however we want. In this proof we are defining the category C to be the category with one object and morphisms G. So long as this satisfies the axioms, this category exists because we have defined it – Aidan Apr 12 '22 at 17:23
  • I have tried to edit my question. I can't realy explain the issue exactly but I hope you understand what I mean @Aidan – tryst with freedom Apr 13 '22 at 02:22
  • To define a category, we must specify the following things: (1) the objects; (2) for every pair of objects $X$ and $Y$, the arrows or morphisms from $X$ to $Y$; (3) for every object $X$, designate the "identity arrowl of $X$" inside the described morphisms from $X$ to $X$; (4) for every ordered triple of objects $X$, $Y$, $Z$, the composition rule explaining how to take a morphism from $X$ to $Y$ and one from $Y$ to $Z$ to get a morphism from $X$ to $Z$. Then we verify all the axioms are satisfied by those designations. The proof does all of that. It specified everything. What is the problem? – Arturo Magidin Apr 13 '22 at 02:41
  • You define a group by specifying a set and a binary operation, an identity element, and inverses, and verifying the axioms. You define a vector space over a field $F$ by specifying a set of vectors, a vector addition, and a scalar multiplication, and verifying it satisfies the axioms to be a vector space. Your addendum is muddled and makes no sense to me. The process described is precisely how the category was defined. – Arturo Magidin Apr 13 '22 at 02:46

2 Answers2

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I'm not sure what exactly your confusion is, and to be honest, the "More details" section confused me...

Let's talk groups and vector spaces as a quick table setting.

What is a group? There are a couple of ways of defining a group, but the most common is to say something like:

A group is an ordered pair $(G,\cdot)$, where $G$ is a set, and $\cdot\colon G\times G\to G$ is a binary operation on the set $G$, such that the operation is associative, has an identity element, and every element has an inverse.

So, how do we describe a group, or how do we specify or "construct" a group? We specify a set, and we specify a binary operation on the set; if necessary, we verify that the operation has the desired properties. Once I've told you the set and the operation, I have "constructed" the group (provided it satisfies the properties it needs to satisfy).

If $K$ is a field, what is a "vector space over $K$"? Again, the precise wording may vary but you usually have something like

A vector space over $K$ is an ordered triple, $(V,+,\cdot)$, where $V$ is a set, $+\colon V\times V\to V$ is a binary operation on $V$, and $\cdot\colon K\times V\to V$ is a way associate to each element $k\in K$ and $v\in V$ an element $k\cdot v\in V$, such that list of 10 axioms.

How do I construct a vector space over $K$? I specify a set $V$ of "vectors", I tell you how to add vectors (elements of $V$), I tell you how to multiply scalars (elements of $K$) by vectors. Once I've specified those three things, if they satisfy the 10 axioms, then I have "constructed a vector space".


What is a category? Again, the precise definition varies (though they all end up defining equivalent structures). A very common way to define a category $\mathscr{C}$ is to say that it consists of:

  1. A collection $\mathrm{Ob}(\mathscr{C})$ of "objects". (I use "collection" because sometimes in categories we work with proper classes rather than sets).

  2. For each ordered pair $(X,Y)$ with $X,Y\in\mathrm{Ob}(\mathscr{C})$, a collection $\mathscr{C}(X,Y)$ of "morphisms from $X$ to $Y$".

  3. For each ordered triple $(X,Y,Z)$ with $X,Y,Z\in\mathrm{Ob}(\mathscr{C})$, a function $\circ\colon \mathscr{C}(Y,Z)\times\mathscr{C}(X,Y)\to\mathscr{C}(X,Z)$, called "composition".

And then we require that it satisfy certain properties/axioms: for each object $X$ there must exist an element $\mathrm{id}_X\in\mathscr{C}(X,X)$ with certain properties relative to composition, $\circ$ is associative, etc.

So, how do we "construct" or specify a category? I need to tell you what the objects are, I need to tell you what the morphisms are, and I need to tell you how to compose morphisms. Once I specify those things, I have "constructed" a category, provided it satisfies the necessary properties/axioms. Note that the "objects" don't need to be sets themselves; not that the morphisms don't need to be "functions" in the usual sense. They are just "things" we label as 'objects' and 'morphisms' (just like a "vector" in a vector space doesn't actually have to be a tuple, and "vector addition" doesn't have to have anything to do with addition in the usual sense).

Just as we can talk about vector spaces in general ("Let $V$ be a vector space; then any spanning set of $V$ contains a basis for $V$", for example), or in particular ("The row space of the matrix $A$ has dimension $3$"), and similarly for groups, we can talk about categories in general (without constructing a specific one; just talking about any category, or any category satisfying certain properties), or in particular (by constructing/specifying a category and saying things about it).


The statement at hand here is: for every group $G$, there is a category $\mathscr{C}$ and an object $X\in\mathrm{Ob}(\mathscr{C})$ such that $\mathrm{Aut}_{\mathscr{C}}(X)\cong G$.

So, let $G$ be a group. We will construct a category and specify an object that satisfy the conclusion.

To specify the category $\mathscr{C}$, I need to tell you: the objects of $\mathscr{C}$; the morphisms between any two objects of $\mathscr{C}$; and how to compose morphisms that can be composed. Let us do so:

  1. Pick a one element set, $\{\star\}$. This will be my set of objects of $\mathscr{C}$. That is, the only object in this category $\mathscr{C}$ I am constructing is $\star$.

  2. Since there is only one object, I only need to tell you what $\mathscr{C}(\star,\star)$ is. Well, it will be the underlying set of the group $G$.

  3. Since there is only one object, I just need to tell you how to compose elements of $\mathscr{C}(\star,\star) = G$ in the category. If $g,h\in\mathscr{C}(\star,\star)$, then they are "really" elements of $G$. So I will define $g\circ h$ to be the element $gh\in G$.

Is this a category? Yes! Composition is associative (because $G$ is a group). The identity morphism on $\star$ is $e_G$, which satisfies the needed condition: for every $g\in\mathscr{C}(\star,\star)$, $e\circ g = eg = g$, $g\circ e = ge = g$.

What object is $\star$? It's just the name of the one element in the one element set you chose. If you aren't sure there is such an object, remember that we know the empty set exists, so we can just take the set $\{\varnothing\}$ (which exists by the Axiom of the Power set). It doesn't matter, because this object is just a placeholder, a scaffolding on which we are constructing our collection of "morphisms".

Now, in this category, I claim that $\mathrm{Aut}_{\mathscr{C}}(\star)$, which is a group under $\circ$, is isomorphic to $G$. Indeed, in fact $\mathrm{Aut}_{\mathscr{C}}(\star)=\mathscr{C}(\star,\star) = G$, and the operation $\circ$ in $\mathrm{Aut}_{\mathscr{C}}(\star)$ is the same as the operation in $G$. So it is not just "isomorphic to $G$", it is in a sense identical to $G$.

This shows the claimed result is true.

Arturo Magidin
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  • I will try again to explain you what my issue is. Suppose I define a group (G,+) firstly I would have to construct $G$ out of ZFC, right? So similarly we have to construct the objects in category and morphisms out of someo ther theory. I am not sure what theory talks about construction of objects. I suppose they are the individua math theories (eg: set, vector etc) – tryst with freedom Apr 13 '22 at 19:03
  • My concern is, how do we know that we can indeed construct such a category? For example, in set theory the kind of set we can consider is limited by what is constructible from axioms. So, are you saying there are no limitation of what one can consider a category? – tryst with freedom Apr 13 '22 at 19:05
  • @Buraian: To define a group $G$, you specify a set and an operation. As long as we agree we have a set and an operation, you don't have to go back all the way to first principles in ZF to define the set. Do you believe that in order for me to define the group of real number under addition, I first have to develop the entire theory of Dedekind cuts from the axioms of ZF? No: we take for granted we already know many things. Here, all you need to know is that you have a group $G$ already given, and that you can "grab" a set with a single element. – Arturo Magidin Apr 13 '22 at 19:05
  • How does this make sense? How can you even talk about group theory without concrete set theory? I myself don't know the details of such construction but I always assumed you could do such a thing – tryst with freedom Apr 13 '22 at 19:07
  • @Buraian: I do not understand why this is a problem here, though. All you need here is to know that you already have a group $G$ given to you in some way you consider acceptable, and to know that you can define a set with a single element. Note that we are not "construting objects": we are specifying a set whose elements are called "the objects of $\mathscr{C}$". Category theory is usually worked out in settings more "liberal" than plain ZF or ZFC: you often use GBN or ZF+Universes, in order to be able to talk about things like "the category of all groups". – Arturo Magidin Apr 13 '22 at 19:07
  • @Buraian: "How can you even talk about group theory without concrete set theory?" Do you honestly claim that we can only talk about a group by starting from first principles in set theory and proceedings from there? You would never get anywhere. We assume that we already have a set theory and we can talk about sets and operations. We are not doing set theory, after all. You could write out all the painful details, but you would end up with thousands of pages just to say "$1+1=2$". We take a particular set theory for granted, and go from there. Just like calculus takes R for granted. – Arturo Magidin Apr 13 '22 at 19:09
  • Generally speaking I am not concerned of this, but in this specific proof we are specifiying a very special type of construction.. so how would one check if this construction is legal or not? – tryst with freedom Apr 13 '22 at 19:10
  • @Buraian: Again, what is the problem here? All you need is to assume that you have been given a group, so that you already know it is a set and an operation on it. And to know that you can construct a set with a single element (and I gave you a specific such set that you can verify exists in any set theory). Which part of the construction do you think has any potential of not being "legal"? – Arturo Magidin Apr 13 '22 at 19:11
  • I went through your answer carefully. As far as I can see there is only one map from a set having empty set to itself, so how can you define the morphisms on it as a group G? That would mean there for a group order >1 , you'd need many more morphisms – tryst with freedom Apr 13 '22 at 19:22
  • @Buraian: You are again confusing "maps" with "morphisms in a category". The morphisms in a category do not have to be the set-theory functions you are used to. They are just things we call "morphisms". Just like the elements of a group don't have to be "numbers". In this category, I declare the underlying set of $G$ to be "the set of morphisms $\mathscr{C}(\star,\star)$". They are not functions in the sense of set theory, but nothing in the definition of "category" requires the morphisms to be actual functions. As I say in the answer. – Arturo Magidin Apr 13 '22 at 19:24
  • So to get this straight the morphism has nothing to do with actual object in the category...? – tryst with freedom Apr 13 '22 at 19:24
  • @Buraian: What does "nothing to do with actual object" even mean? When does something have "something to do" with something else? In a category, a morphism from $X$ to $Y$ (where $X$ and $Y$ are "objects" in the category) is an element of the collection $\mathscr{C}(X,Y)$. It doesn't have to be a function in the sense of set theory. Again, I say so in the answer that you claimed to have "gone through carefully". – Arturo Magidin Apr 13 '22 at 19:26
  • I understand the function distinction, I am saying it's that to each object we define a collection of morphisms, but these morphisms have nothing to do with the actual object itself other than belonging to it – tryst with freedom Apr 13 '22 at 19:30
  • @Buraian:If you aren't clear yet, why are you accepting the answer? I do not understand your first sentence at all: "I understand the function". What function? What is it you understand? You can define a category alternatively as follows: it consists of a collection of Objects and a collection of arrows, together with two functions (in the usual sense) $s,t\colon \text{Arrows}\to\text{Objects}$, called "source" and "target". And a partial operation on Arrows, where $g\circ f$ is defined only if "target of $f$" is equal to "source of $g$", satisfying axioms. (cont) – Arturo Magidin Apr 13 '22 at 19:33
  • @Buraian: Then we define the collection of "morphisms from object $X$ to object $Y$" to be the collection of all arrows that have source equal to $X$ and target equal to $Y$. Etc. The "arrows"/morphisms don't have be functions from a set $X$ to a set $Y$. They just have to be things that we attach to $X$ and to $Y$, in order. That's one of the key things about categories, and I am sure your book goes into detail about it when first discussing categories. – Arturo Magidin Apr 13 '22 at 19:35
  • I meant the function distinction. I've edited now. I accepted the answer because I thought I understood what you said to a large degree with the last comment. – tryst with freedom Apr 13 '22 at 19:38
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Whether and how an object $X$ exists depends on your formalization (though formalizatoins in which it doesn't I suspect are not common if they're to be used for formalizing mathematics).

Let me use the standard first-order logic formalization, in which a category has the following structure:

  1. a collection $O$ whose elements are called objects
  2. a collection $M$ whose elements are called morphisms
  3. functions $d,c\colon M\to O$ sending each morphism $f\in M$ to its domain object $d(f)\in O$ and to its codomain object $c(f)\in O$, respectively codomain
  4. a function $e\colon O\to M$ sending an object to each identity morphism.
  5. a composition morphism $m\colon M\times_O M\to M$ where $M\times_O M\subseteq M$ is the subcollection of compostable pairs of morphisms given by $M\times_O M=\{(f,g)\in M\times M: d(f)=c(g)\}$.

The axioms that make this structure a category are:

  1. That the identity morphism of an object has domain and codomain that same object: it is expressed by the equation of function composites $d\circ e=c\circ e=\mathrm{id}_O\colon O\to M\rightrightarrows O$, where $\mathrm{id}_O\colon O\to O$ is the identity function on the collection $O$.
  2. The composing a morphism with the identity morphism results in the same morphism. This is expressed by the equation of elements $m\circ(f,e(o))=m\circ(e(o),g)=f$ for each $f,g\in M$ with $d(f)=o=c(g)$. It can also be expressed as equations of functions: $m\circ(\mathrm{id}_M,e\circ d)=m\circ(e\circ c,\mathrm{id}_M)=\mathrm{id}_M$ where $(e\circ c,\mathrm{id}_M),(\mathrm{id}_M,e\circ d)\colon M\to M\times_OM$. Note that the functions have image in the correct subcollection of $M\times M$ due to 1.
  3. The domain and codomain of a composite of a composable pair are the domain and codomain that were not required to match. Explicitly, $d(m(f,g))=d(g)$ and $c(m(f,g))=c(g)$. As equations of functions, this is $d\circ m=d\circ\pi_2$ and $c\circ m=c\circ\pi_1$ where $\pi_1,\pi_2\colon M\times_OM\to M$ are the functions given by $\pi_1(f,g)=f$ and $\pi_2(f,g)=g$.
  4. That composition of morphisms is associative. This is expressed by the equation $m\circ(m\times\mathrm{id}_M)=m\circ(\mathrm{id}_M\times m)\colon M\times_OM\times_OM\to M$ where $M\times_OM\times_OM\subseteq M\times M\times M$ is the subcollection of composable triples of morphisms explicitly given by $M\times_OM\times_OM=\{(f,g,h)\in M\times M\times M: d(f)=c(g),d(g)=c(h)\}$, and $\mathrm{id}_M\times m,m\times\mathrm{id}_M\colon M\times_OM\times_OM\to M\times_OM$ are given by $\mathrm{id}_M\times m(f,g,h)=(f,m(g,h))$ and $m\times\mathrm{id}_M(f,g,h)=(m(f,g),h)$. Note that the functions have image in the correct subcollection of $M\times M\times M$ due to 3.

A more conceptual view is that the pair of functions $d,c\colon M\to O$ realize a family of sets of morphisms $\mathrm{Hom}(X,Y)=d^{-1}(X)\cap d^{-1}(Y)$ indexed by pairs of objects. Then the above definition amounts to a first-order encoding of the notion of a category as a collection of objects, equipped with a family of morphisms indexed by pairs of objects, and composition function defined on the family of compostable pairs, etc. However, the formal language of families isn't widely-used because one can get away with formalizing in first-order logic as above.

In any case, recall now that the structure of a monoid is a collection $M$ equipped with a binary function $m\colon M\times M\to M$ and an element $e\in M$. I claim that any choice of a singleton collection (collection with exactly one element) allows the construction of a category with one object (the element of the singleton) our of the monoid, and conversely that category with one object yields a monoid by forgetting its (singleton) collection of objects.

Let the singleton be $\{X\}$ and set $O=\{X\}$ (so that the category we are constructing has a single object the element $X$ of the singleton). Since functions $\{X\}\to M$ are in bijection with elements of $M$, the above element $e\in M$ corresponds to a function $e\colon\{X\}\to M$, i.e. a function $e\colon O\to M$ (I abuse notation and label both the same).

Moreover, there is a unique function $M\to\{X\}$ sending every element of $M$ to the element $X$. Let's use it twice with two distinct labels: $d,c\colon M\to O$. In that case $M\times_OM=\{(f,g)\in M\times M:d(f)=c(g)\}=M\times M$ since $d(f)=X=c(g)$ for all $(f,g)\in M\times M$. Note that we are interpreting the elements of the monoid as morphisms with domain and codomain $X$.

Thus our choice of a singleton for $O$ and identification of the unit of the monoid with a function out of $O$ and of the domain and codomain functions with the unique function from $M$ to $O$ augments the structure of a monoid into the structure of a category: $d,c:M\to O=\{X\}$, $e\colon O=\{X\}\to M$, and $m\colon M\times_O M=M\times M\to M$.

It is now straightforward to verify the category axioms hold for this structure if and only if the monoid axioms hold for the original structure, which are the associativity: $m(m(x,y),z)=m(x,m(y,z))$ for all $x,y,z$ and the unit axiom $x=m(e,x)=m(x,e)$ for every elements $x\in M$.

  1. $d\circ e=\circ e=\{X\}$ since both have to be the unique function $O=\{X\}\to\{X\}=O$.
  2. is literally the unit axiom of a monoid
  3. $d\circ m=d\circ\pi_2$ since both have to be the unique function $M\times M=M\times_O M\to\{X\}$ and similarly $\circ m=c\circ\pi_1$.
  4. $M\times_O\times M\times_O M=\{(f,g,h)\in M\times M\times M:d(f)=c(g),d(g)=c(h)\}=M\times M\times M$. Then this axiom is literally the associativty axiom for the monoid $M$.

Now as to the existence of a singleton $\{X\}$, in usual set theory any set is contained in a singleton. In more general first-order logic, any element of a collection determines a subcollection consisting of exactly that object. If there are no sets or elements of collections, then there are simply neither monoids nor categires with one object, so the result still works.

  • Is the author's description and yours equivalent? I've never seen a function pushing a morphism back to dom – tryst with freedom Apr 14 '22 at 03:49
  • Is it the identity function $i\colon O\to M$ you are referring to when you say "pushing back to dom"? If so, in the "families of morphisms" formulation this correspond to there being an identity morphism for every object. This can be said to be family of elements of a specified collection (of all morphisms), and families of elements of a collection can be given by functions to the collection. (Whereas families of elements not in a collection can be given by functions from the collection of their disjoint union). – Vladimir Sotirov Apr 14 '22 at 04:34
  • point 3. of axiom you mention it – tryst with freedom Apr 14 '22 at 05:10
  • That has to do with how your formalize something like "a collection of morphisms $\mathrm{Hom}(X,Y)$ for each pair of objects $X$ and $Y$". One way is to take a disjoint union of the collection, which would produce a single colletion that does not remember which morphism is associated ot which objects $X$ and $Y$. You then add back in functions $d,c\colon M\to O$ so that $f\in\mathrm{Hom}(X,Y)$ becomes equialent to the conjunction of $f\in M, d(f)=X, c(f)=Y$. Depending on foundations, the family may even already be a formula $\phi(f,X,Y)$ equialent to $f\in\mathrm{Hom}(X,Y)$ to begin with. – Vladimir Sotirov Apr 14 '22 at 05:43
  • Thank you so much! I think I understand it all a lot more now – tryst with freedom Apr 14 '22 at 05:47