I am having a hard time translating implications from English to logic. It seems that a lot of the time, $P {\implies}Q$ is the same as $Q {\implies}P.$
“You cannot ride the roller coaster if you are under $4$ feet tall unless you are older than $16$ years old.” Let $X, Y,$ and $Z$ represent “You can ride the roller coaster,” “You are under $4$ feet tall,” and “You are older than $16$ years old,” respectively. Then the sentence can be translated to
$(Y \wedge \neg Z) \implies ¬X$
“You can access the Internet from campus only if you are a computer science major or you are not a freshman.” We let $A, C,$ and $F$ represent “You can access the Internet from campus,” “You are a computer science major,” and “You are a freshman,” respectively. Noting that “only if” is one way a conditional statement can be expressed, this sentence can be represented as
$A \implies (C \vee \neg F )$.
Why can't we say $(C \vee \neg F ) \implies A$? These English sentences both seem to say "you can/cannot access a particular thing if you meet / don't meet certain requirements", yet the goal $A$ is on the left hand side for the first example while the goal $\neg X$ is on the right hand side for the second example. I have looked around for answers but nothing has seemed to clear this up for me. It seems like you could reverse the implications. How do I know that it is $P {\implies}Q$ instead of $Q {\implies}P$?