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$\newcommand{\log}{\operatorname{Log}}\newcommand{\res}{\operatorname{Res}}\newcommand{\d}{\mathrm{d}}$Let $\Lambda(z)=\log\Gamma(z)$, $a\gt0$, let $\psi$ denote digamma.

It is written here, Page 49, equation 47:

$$\pi\cdot\Im\left[\res_{z=\pi i}\frac{\Lambda\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)}{\cosh(z)+1}\right]=\psi\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{a}{2\pi}\right)$$

To motivate the calculation of this hard residue, it is shown in that paper that knowledge of this residue indirectly solves the integral:

$$\int_1^\infty\frac{\ln\ln x}{(x+1)^2}\,\d x=\frac{1}{2}\int_0^\infty\frac{\ln x}{\cosh x +1}\,\d x$$

And finds it to be equal to:

$$\frac{1}{2}\left\{\ln2\pi+\lim_{a\to0+}\pi\cdot\Im\left[\res_{z=\pi i}\frac{\Lambda\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)}{\cosh(z)+1}\right]\right\}=\frac{1}{2}\left(-\gamma+\ln\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$$

Which is equivalently the limit of Malmsten’s integral as $\varphi\to0$.

Formally, I can attempt to find, as the singularity is an order two pole (the reader should note that the following working is mistaken):

$$\begin{align}\lim_{z\to\pi i}\frac{\d}{\d z}(z-\pi i)^2\frac{\Lambda\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)}{\cosh(z)+1}&=\lim_{z\to\pi i}\frac{2(z-\pi i)\Lambda\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)+\frac{1}{2\pi i}(z-\pi i)^2\psi\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)}{\cosh(z)+1}-\frac{\sinh(z)(z-\pi i)^2\Lambda\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)}{(\cosh(z)+1)^2}\\&=\lim_{z\to\pi i}\frac{2\Lambda\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)+\frac{2}{\pi i}(z-\pi i)\psi\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)-\frac{1}{4\pi^2}(z-\pi i)^2\psi'\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)}{\sinh(z)}\\&-\frac{\cosh(z)(z-\pi i)^2\Lambda\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)+2\sinh(z)(z-\pi i)\Lambda\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)+\frac{1}{2\pi i}\sinh(z)(z-\pi i)^2\psi\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)}{2\sinh(z)(\cosh(z)+1)}\\&=\lim_{z\to\pi i}\frac{\frac{2}{\pi i}\psi\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)-\frac{1}{\pi^2}(z-\pi i)\psi'\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)-\frac{1}{4\pi^2}(z-\pi i)^2\psi''\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)}{\cosh(z)}\\&-\frac{\sinh(z)(z-\pi i)^2\Lambda\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)+2\cosh(z)(z-\pi i)\Lambda\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)+\frac{1}{2\pi i}\cosh(z)(z-\pi i)^2\psi\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)}{2\cosh(z)(\cosh(z)+1)+2\sinh^2(z)}\\&-\frac{\Lambda\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)+\frac{1}{\pi i}(z-\pi i)\psi\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)-\frac{1}{8\pi^2}(z-\pi i)^2\psi'\left(\frac{z+ai}{2\pi i}\right)}{\sinh(z)}\\&=-\frac{2}{\pi i}\psi\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{a}{2\pi}\right)-\lim_{z\to\pi i}[\cdots]\end{align}$$

But now there is a problem. The latter "$\cdots$" contains a ratio which cannot be resolved by L'Hopital (dominator $\sinh$, numerator non-zero). This is also a horribly complicated expression, and I am assuming that the author would have mentioned it if it is was this difficult. There must surely be some more straightforward way...

Any advice? I've never done residue calculations this difficult before.

I have found other residues from integral earlier in the paper by using small epsilon and Taylor series arguments, but they avail me nought here.

Edit: I see I have misused L'Hopital again, on the third line! The numerator goes not to zero.

FShrike
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  • Hint. for $z=i k\pi$ we have $\cosh(z)+1=0$ – Cesareo Dec 07 '21 at 22:36
  • Yes. @Cesareo Forgive me, but if I'm not mistaken, that is the entire point. Were that not true, the residue would simply be zero. Am I missing something? – FShrike Dec 07 '21 at 22:37
  • What about $\log \left(\Gamma \left(\frac{a+k \pi }{2 \pi }\right)\right)$ ? – Cesareo Dec 07 '21 at 22:42
  • I'm not sure. I know from CAS computations that without the log-gamma, we have the residue as zero anyway. With the log-gamma, the Laurent series has a $z^{-1}$ term, namely $\frac{i}{\pi}\psi\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{a}{2\pi}\right)$, but proving that has stumped me @Cesareo – FShrike Dec 07 '21 at 22:44
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    @SamGinrich That’s the interesting thing; without the $\ln\Gamma$, the residue is simply zero! The introduction of it somehow alters the Laurent series to have a $z^{-1}$ term. See this; it works, sure, but... how do I calculate this for myself? – FShrike Dec 07 '21 at 23:27
  • ... meant the decomposition "If g is holomorphic and f has a pole of order n, then Res (g f'/f, x0) = -g(x0)*n". So, you might derive f from the cosh-term and win – Sam Ginrich Dec 08 '21 at 00:10
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    You can use the handy formula that was derived in this answer. – Random Variable Dec 08 '21 at 07:48
  • @RandomVariable brilliant, thank you – FShrike Dec 08 '21 at 08:48

2 Answers2

2

You can use $$ \Lambda\! \left( {\frac{{z + ai}}{{2\pi i}}} \right) = \Lambda \!\left( {\frac{1}{2} + \frac{a}{{2\pi }}} \right) + \frac{1}{{2\pi i}}\psi\! \left( {\frac{1}{2} + \frac{a}{{2\pi }}} \right)(z - \pi i) + \mathcal{O}((z - \pi i)^2 ) $$ and $$ \frac{1}{{\cosh (z) + 1}} = -\frac{1}{{2\sinh ^2 \left( {\frac{{z - \pi i}}{2}} \right)}} = -\frac{2}{{(z - \pi i)^2 }} + \mathcal{O}(1) $$ to obtain $$ \frac{{\Lambda\! \left( {\frac{{z + ai}}{{2\pi i}}} \right)}}{{\cosh (z) + 1}} = -\frac{2}{{(z - \pi i)^2 }} \Lambda\! \left( {\frac{1}{2} + \frac{a}{{2\pi }}} \right) + \frac{1}{{ z - \pi i }}\frac{i}{{\pi }}\psi\! \left( {\frac{1}{2} + \frac{a}{{2\pi }}} \right) + \mathcal{O}(1), $$ and the result follows.

Gary
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  • I am slightly unsure about the meaning of $\mathcal{O}(1)$ here, we can surely say more precisely than that – FShrike Dec 08 '21 at 06:56
  • @FShrike Sure, but it is not interesting because it does not affect the residue. I gave the minimum information about the behaviour of these functions near $\pi i$ that is necessary for the calculation of the residue. – Gary Dec 08 '21 at 07:05
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It's well known that if $f(z)$ is analytic at $z=b$, and $g(z)$ has a zero of order $1$ at $z=b$, then $$\operatorname{Res}\left[\frac{f(z)}{g(z)}, b\right] = \frac{f(b)}{g'(b)}.$$

What's not as well known is that if $f(z)$ is analytic at $z=b$, and $g(z)$ has a zero of order $2$ at $z=b$, then $$ \operatorname{Res}\left[\frac{f(z)}{g(z)}, b\right]=\frac{6 f'(b) g''(b) - 2 f(b) g'''(b)}{3 [g''(b)]^2}. $$

This formula was derived by Ron Gordon in this answer.

Using this formula, we get $$ \begin{align} \operatorname{Res} \left[\frac{\log \Gamma \left(\frac{z+ai}{2 \pi i} \right)}{1+ \cosh(z) }, \pi i \right] &= \frac{\frac{6}{2 \pi i} \psi\left(\frac{\pi +a}{2 \pi}\right) \cosh \left(\pi i \right) -2\log \Gamma \left(\frac{\pi +a}{2\pi} \right) \sinh \left(\pi i \right) }{3 \cosh^{2} \left(\pi i \right)} \\ &= \frac{-\frac{3}{\pi i }\psi \left(\frac{\pi +a}{2 \pi} \right) -0}{3(1)} \\ &= \frac{i}{\pi} \psi\left(\frac{1}{2} + \frac{a}{2 \pi} \right). \end{align}$$