I have noticed that in some places on the web (such as here and on the Encyclopedia of Math), De Moivre's familiar theorem,
$$z^n=\big(\rho(\cos\phi+i \sin\phi)\big)^n=\rho^n(\cos n\phi + i \sin n\phi)$$
is expressed in terms that make it easier to compute the roots of a complex number,
$$z^\frac{1}{n}=\big(\rho(\cos\phi+i \sin\phi)\big)^\frac{1}{n}=\rho^\frac{1}{n}\left(\cos\frac{\phi+2\pi k}{n} + i \sin \frac{\phi+2\pi k}{n}\right), \\ k=0,1,\ldots n-1$$
I was wondering, what is a simple way to derive the second version from the first? I know that adding a multiple of $2\pi$ to angle does not change its $\sin$ or $\cos$, but I am not sure how to use that knowledge to derive the second version.
EDIT:
I don't mean to be a snob, but it would be better for me (and any poor sap who stumbles upon this question in the years to come) if the amount of extra mathemetical information in answers was kept to a minimum.
I will upvote any answers that are technically correct, but I won't accept the answer if it seems to require more math knowledge than the average high-schooler would be comfortable with.
\sin
andcos
and LaTeX's built in formatting will take care of the spacing for you. – K.defaoite Jul 28 '21 at 17:25