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I have noticed that in some places on the web (such as here and on the Encyclopedia of Math), De Moivre's familiar theorem,

$$z^n=\big(\rho(\cos\phi+i \sin\phi)\big)^n=\rho^n(\cos n\phi + i \sin n\phi)$$

is expressed in terms that make it easier to compute the roots of a complex number,

$$z^\frac{1}{n}=\big(\rho(\cos\phi+i \sin\phi)\big)^\frac{1}{n}=\rho^\frac{1}{n}\left(\cos\frac{\phi+2\pi k}{n} + i \sin \frac{\phi+2\pi k}{n}\right), \\ k=0,1,\ldots n-1$$

I was wondering, what is a simple way to derive the second version from the first? I know that adding a multiple of $2\pi$ to angle does not change its $\sin$ or $\cos$, but I am not sure how to use that knowledge to derive the second version.

EDIT:

I don't mean to be a snob, but it would be better for me (and any poor sap who stumbles upon this question in the years to come) if the amount of extra mathemetical information in answers was kept to a minimum.

I will upvote any answers that are technically correct, but I won't accept the answer if it seems to require more math knowledge than the average high-schooler would be comfortable with.

K.defaoite
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    Well, I completely appreciate that sentiment - it is good to want clear answers. The only problem is, you asked how to derive the second version in the terms of the $2\pi k$ term, which is the only thing in the roots formula that needs technical care to be explained! The only way to pass it off especially simply is to just take De Moivre's formula on the second version, raise it to the power $n$, and then you get the original expression with a $+2\pi k$ in the angles, which doesn't affect the evaluation. That just requires you to be comfortable with multivalued functions... – FShrike Jul 27 '21 at 09:23
  • But that results in proving the second formula once you already know it, instead of proving it from first principles. – FShrike Jul 27 '21 at 09:24
  • Tip: use \sin and cos and LaTeX's built in formatting will take care of the spacing for you. – K.defaoite Jul 28 '21 at 17:25
  • Thanks @K.defaoite. I'm facepalming right now :) – TookieWookie Jul 29 '21 at 06:56

3 Answers3

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The reason the angles have an offset of $2\pi k$ is because in the complex world, operations like root-taking are multivalued - because exponentiation of $a^b$ is defined as $\exp(\ln(a)\cdot b)$, and the complex log is multivalued.

Now here we have to assume that $n$ is a real number, and of course $\phi$ is real as well, as otherwise the property $(\rho(\cos\phi+i\sin\phi))^{1/n}=\rho^{1/n}\cdot(\cos\phi+i\sin\phi)^{1/n}$ does not hold. With those assumptions in mind, one could guess the inverse of De Moivre's formula, which was originally developed for integers, but by Euler's formula it holds for any real number $n$. That is to say, if $(\cos\phi+i\sin\phi)^n=\cos n\phi+i\sin n\phi$, then surely $(\cos\phi+i\sin\phi)^{1/n}=\cos\frac{\phi}{n}+i\sin\frac{\phi}{n}$. There is some technical care needed before you turn this intuition into rigour:

To see why the $2\pi k$ appears where it does, consider the cosine + sine as $\exp(i\phi)$. Then:

$$\exp(i\phi)^{1/n}=\exp\left(\ln(\exp(i\phi))\cdot\frac{1}{n}\right)$$

By the definition I made at the start, and

$$\begin{align}\exp\left(\ln(\exp(i\phi))\cdot\frac{1}{n}\right)&=\exp\left((i\phi+2\pi ik)\cdot\frac{1}{n}\right)\\&=\exp\left(i(\phi+2\pi k)\cdot\frac{1}{n}\right)\\&=\cos\left(\frac{\phi+2\pi k}{n}\right)+i\sin\left(\frac{\phi+2\pi k}{n}\right)\end{align}$$

As you see in your formulae.

FShrike
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  • Why is exponentiation of $a^b$ defined as $\exp(\ln(a)\cdot b)$? How is this formula derived? – TookieWookie Jul 27 '21 at 09:11
  • It is not derived - it is defined. And that definition holds for real numbers too, it's just that in the real number case it's a bit unnecessary since $\ln(a)$ would be single valued. Perhaps this will be intuitive: since $\exp$ is the king of complex exponentiation, all other exponentiation formulae and identities are defined, and built on top of, $\exp$. $\exp(z)$ has a very clear definition by Euler's formula (and other characterisations!), but $2^z$ has no meaning at all, unless you consider $2$ as $\exp(\ln(2))$. Does that make sense? – FShrike Jul 27 '21 at 09:16
  • Maybe think of it as a special case? $\exp(\ln(a))=a$ so $a^b$ must be $(\exp(\ln(a))^b$ and we let this be the only instance where $(a^b)^c=a^{bc}$ is correct, so $a^b=\exp(\ln(a)\cdot b)$ – FShrike Jul 27 '21 at 09:31
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$z^{1/n}$ is a complex number that when raised to the $n^\text{th}$ power, gives $z$. Using Euler's Formula, we get $$ \begin{align} &\left[\rho^{1/n}\left(\cos\left(\frac{\theta+2\pi k}{n}\right)+i\sin\left(\frac{\theta+2\pi k}{n}\right)\right)\right]^n\tag{1a}\\ &=\rho\,(\cos(\theta+2\pi k)+i\sin(\theta+2\pi k))\tag{1b}\\[6pt] &=\rho\,(\cos(\theta)+i\sin(\theta))\tag{1c} \end{align} $$ The last equation follows because $\sin(x+2\pi)=\sin(x)$ and $\cos(x+2\pi)=\cos(x)$, so by induction, for all positive integers $k$, $\sin(x+2\pi k)=\sin(x)$ and $\cos(x+2\pi k)=\cos(x)$.


We only need to use $0\le k\le n-1$ since $$ \cos\left(\frac{\theta+2\pi n}{n}\right)+i\sin\left(\frac{\theta+2\pi n}{n}\right)=\cos\left(\frac{\theta}{n}\right)+i\sin\left(\frac{\theta}{n}\right)\tag2 $$ and so we would start repeating $n^\text{th}$ roots every $n$ times if we used $k\ge n$.


We get $n$ different roots using $0\le k\le n-1$ with $$ \rho^{1/n}\left(\cos\left(\frac{\theta+2\pi k}{n}\right)+i\sin\left(\frac{\theta+2\pi k}{n}\right)\right)\tag3 $$ since $\cos(x)+i\sin(x)=\cos(y)+i\sin(y)$ implies that $$ \begin{align} 0 &=(\cos(x)-\cos(y))^2+(\sin(x)-\sin(y))^2\tag{4a}\\[6pt] &=2-2\cos(x-y)\tag{4b} \end{align} $$ and therefore, $x-y\in2\pi\mathbb{Z}$.

robjohn
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  • There is also a geometric explanation of why $e^{ix}=\cos(x)+i\sin(x)$ given in this answer, that should be understandable if one understands trigonometry, limits, and complex numbers. – robjohn Jul 27 '21 at 12:16
  • +1. We're definitely getting closer. Why, if $\sin(x+2\pi k)=\sin(x)$ and $\cos(x+2\pi k)=\cos(x)$, does varying the value of $k$ from $0$ to $n-1$ give different roots? – TookieWookie Jul 28 '21 at 07:37
  • @TookieWookie: I've added a section that might help to clarify things. If not, let me know. – robjohn Jul 28 '21 at 16:10
  • How does $\cos(x)+i\sin(x)=\cos(y)+i\sin(y)$ imply that $x-y\in2\pi\mathbb{Z}$? – TookieWookie Jul 29 '21 at 06:58
  • @TookieWookie: I have added an explanation of that, as well. – robjohn Jul 29 '21 at 16:41
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A complex number $z \ne 0$ can be written as $$z = r(\cos \phi +i \sin \phi) \tag{1}$$ with a unique positive number $r$ (in fact, $r = \lvert z \rvert$) and an angle $\phi \in \mathbb R$. As you know, the angle $\phi$ is not uniquely determined by $z$ - we have to make a choice. If we have chosen some $\phi$ satisfying $(1)$, the complete set of solutions of $(1)$ is given by the numbers $$\phi + 2k\pi,k \in \mathbb Z .$$ Frequently one makes the choice of $\phi$ unique by requiring $0 \le \phi < 2\pi$, but this is arbitrary convention. We could also require $-\pi < \phi \le \pi$ etc.

Note that if $\phi, \phi'$ belong to the same half-open interval of length $2\pi$, then $\cos \phi +i \sin \phi = \cos \phi' +i \sin \phi'$ if and only if $\phi = \phi'$.

You ask how $$z^n = r^n(\cos n\phi + i \sin n \phi)$$ can be used to prove that $$z^{1/n} = r^{1/n}(\cos \frac{\phi+2\pi k}{n} + i \sin \frac{\phi+2\pi k}{n}), \\ k=0,1,\ldots n-1 .$$

So let us determine all complex numbers $w = s (\cos \psi + i \sin \psi)$ such that $w^n = z$. These $w$ are written as $z^{1/n}$ although this notation can mislead to think that $z^{1/n}$ is unique. We have

$$w^n = s^n(\cos n\psi + i \sin n\psi) .$$ Comparing with $z$ yields $s = r^{1/n}$ and $n\psi = \phi + 2k\pi$ for some $k$. The latter means that $$\psi = \frac{\phi + 2k\pi}{n} .$$ Hence for each $k \in \mathbb Z$ an $n$-th root of $z$ is given by $$w_k = r^{1/n}(\cos \psi_k + i \sin \psi_k)$$ where $$\psi_k = \frac{\phi+2\pi k}{n} .$$ Clearly $\psi_k = \psi_{k'}$ if and only if $k = k'$. Which distinct $w_k$ are produced by these $\psi_k$?

  1. The numbers $\psi_0,\ldots,\psi_{n-1}$ belong to the interval $[\phi/n,\phi/n + 2\pi)$, therefore the $w_0,\ldots,w_{n-1}$ are $n$ distinct $n$-th roots of $z$.

  2. We have $\psi_{k + rn} = \psi_k + 2r\pi$ for all $r \in \mathbb Z$, thus $w_{k+rn} = w_k$. This shows that each $w_k$ agrees with one of $w_0,\ldots,w_{n-1}$.

Paul Frost
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