Hint $\ $ Noting that $\displaystyle\rm\ \ \ a\mid b\,\iff\, \frac{b}a\in \mathbb Z$
we observe that $\rm\ \ a\mid b,\ c\mid d\ \ \Rightarrow\ \ ac\mid bd $
is equivalent to $\,\rm\displaystyle\,\ \ \frac{b}a,\,\frac{d}c\in\mathbb Z\ \ \Rightarrow\ \frac{b\,d}{a\,c}\in\, \mathbb Z$
in your notation $\rm\ \ \ j,\ k\ \in\ \mathbb Z\ \ \Rightarrow\ \ j\, k\ \in \, \mathbb Z$
That's true: the product of integers is an integer, i.e. integers are closed under product. So this divisibility product law is equivalent to this product closure law (except if our definition of divisibility includes $\,0\mid n\iff n= 0\,$ then we need to handle such cases separately - which is easy).
Edit $\ $ Since, based on comments, at least one reader seems to have misconstrued the intent of my answer, I elaborate below. When I posted this answer, there were already a few answers explaining the logical flaw in the proposed proof in the question. That done, my intent was instead to address another point, namely how one may exploit the the innate arithmetical structure in order to attain a simpler and more conceptual proof. Such simplification may make the proof more intuitive, which may help one to avoid making such errors. To elaborate, below I show how the "arithmetic" of the divisibility relation is intimately connected with the arithmetic of the subring $\rm\,\mathbb Z\subset\mathbb Q.\,$
First, notice how the above proof makes clear that this product rule for divisibility is essentially equivalent to the product rule for integrality, i.e. if $\rm\,j,k\,$ are integers then so too is their product $\rm\,jk.\,$ Indeed, as we saw above, this integrality product rule easily implies the divisibility product rule. Conversely, if the divisibility product rule is true, then specializing $\rm\ a = 1 = c\ $ we infer $\rm\, 1\mid b,\ 1\mid d\ \Rightarrow\ 1\mid bd,\, $ i.e. $\rm\, b,d\in\mathbb Z\ \Rightarrow\ bd\in \mathbb Z\ $ (note $\rm\, 1\mid n\iff n\in \mathbb Z,\,$ by definition).
Similarly, one deduces the equivalence between the divisibility difference rule, namely that $\rm\ a\mid b,\,c\ \Rightarrow\ a\mid b\!-\!c\ $ and the fact that $\rm\,\mathbb Z\,$ is closed under difference $\rm\,j,\,k\in \mathbb Z\ \Rightarrow\ j\!-\!k\in\mathbb Z$.
Combining these observations leads to the following equivalence between the arithmetic of divisibility relations and subrings $\rm\,Z\,$ of $\,\mathbb Q\,$ (or any field).
Theorem $\ $ Let $\rm\,Z\, $ be a subset of $\rm\,\mathbb Q\,$ with $\rm \,1\in Z.\,$ Let $\:\mid\: $ denote the divisibility relation $\rm\, a\mid b \iff b/a\in Z\,$ for $\rm\,a,b\in Z,\, a\ne 0,\ $ and $\rm\ 0\mid b \iff b = 0.\,$ Then the following two statements are equivalent.
$\rm(1)\ \ \ Z\ $ is a subring of $\rm\,\mathbb Q$
$\rm(2)\ \ $ The relation $\:\mid\: $ satsifies the following properties.
$\rm\qquad a\mid b,\,c\,\ \Rightarrow\,\ a\mid b-c\qquad $ for all $\rm\,a,b,c\in Z$
$\rm\qquad a\mid b,\ c\mid d\,\ \Rightarrow\,\ a\,c\mid b\,d\ \ \ $ for all $\rm\,a,b,c,d\in Z$
Remark $ $ The test in $(2)$ is the Subring Test in divisibility language.