Let $f(x)=\frac{(1-x)\log(1-x)}{x\log x}$. I find one claims this function is increasing on $(0,1)$. While I find the numerator of $f'(x)$ is $$-x\log x -\log x\log(1-x)-(1-x)\log(1-x).$$ I am wondering why this is non-negative?
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See $-x\log x -\log x\log(1-x)-(1-x)\log(1-x)=-\log(1-x) -\log x\log(1-x) $ $= - \log(1-x)\log(ex)$. This is positive when $\log(ex)$ is positive which is possible when $ex>1$.Something weird is happening this comment is not rendering properly. – PNDas Nov 08 '20 at 07:02
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It might be useful to note that $f(1 - x) = \frac{1}{f(x)}$ in $(0,1)$. – Toby Mak Nov 08 '20 at 07:02
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Sorry if this is a dumb question: Is your $\log$ to the base $e$? – eatfood Nov 08 '20 at 14:14
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1@eatfood Yes, but actually it doesn’t matter by change of base. – Connor Nov 08 '20 at 16:52
4 Answers
Consider the function $g(x)=\frac{\log(1-x)}{x}$. Then
$$f(x)=\frac{g(x)}{g(1-x)}$$
Take a derivative of $g$:
$$g'(x)=-\frac{x+(1-x)\log(1-x)}{x^2(1-x)}$$
Consider the auxiliary function $h(x)=x+(1-x)\log(1-x)$. We use a standard argument to show that it is positive. It's derivative is $h'(x)=-\log(1-x)$ which is positive in the interval $(0,1)$ and that means that h is increasing. However $h(0)=0~,~h(1)=1$ which proves given it's monotonicity, that $h(x)\geq 0, x\in(0,1)$.
Therefore we finally conclude that in the interval $(0,1)$ $g'(x)\leq 0$ and thus g is decreasing. Knowing this, we can also conclude that $g(1-x)$ is increasing in the same interval since the transformation $x\to 1-x$ reverses monotonicity but leaves the interval invariant. Finally we see that $1/g(1-x)$ is decreasing since $g(1-x)$ is non-vanishing in this interval and therefore it has the same sign (in fact, it is negative).
Now note that the functions $u_1(x)=-g(x)$ and $u_2(x)=-1/g(1-x)$ are both increasing and positive. One can easily show that multiplying increasing, positive functions results in an increasing, positive function as well. Since $f(x)=u_1(x)u_2(x)$ we conclude that $f$ is increasing and this concludes the proof.

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And I am afraid in the complicated way, the sign of $\ge x^2$ is wrong. – Connor Nov 14 '20 at 22:45
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Using taylor series: $$\frac {\ln(1-x)}{x}=-\frac {x+\frac {x^2}2+...}x=- (1+\frac x2+...)$$ Which is decreasing, similarly: $$\frac {\ln(x)}{1-x}=-\frac{\ln(1-(1-x))}{1-x}=-(1+\frac{1-x}2+...)$$ Which is increasing, then its reciprocal $\frac {1-x}{\ln(x)}$ is decreasing.
Since these two are negative, then they multiplied together is increasing.

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Using the argument from $\frac{\log(x)}{1-x}$ is increasing (and similar to DinosaurEgg's solution):
$$ h(x) = -\frac{\log(x)}{1-x} = \frac{1}{x-1} \int_1^x \frac{dt}{t} = \int_0^1 \frac{ds}{1+s(x-1)} $$ is positive and decreasing for $x \in (0, 1)$. Then $$ h(1-x) = -\frac{\log(1-x)}{x} $$ is positive and increasing in that interval, so that $$ f(x)=\frac{(1-x)\log(1-x)}{x\log x} = \frac{h(1-x)}{h(x)} $$ is increasing.

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(Not a complete answer but hopefully close enough)
You want to show that $$ x \log(x)+ (1-x)\log(1-x) \le - \log(x) \log(1-x)$$ Divide on both sides by $\log(x) \log(1-x)$ and this is $$ \frac{x}{\log(1-x)} + \frac{1-x}{\log(x)} \le -1 $$
This is of the form $$ f(x) + f(1-x) \le c$$ where $f(x) = \frac{x}{\log(1-x)}$. I don't know if there is a nice way to show this.
But the not-so-nice way is to Taylor expand $$ \frac{x}{\log(1-x)} = -1 + \frac{x}{2} + \frac{x^2}{12} + \frac{x^3}{24} + \dotsm $$ $$ \frac{1-x}{\log(x)} = -1 + \frac{1-x}{2} + \frac{(1-x)^2}{12} + \frac{(1-x)^3}{24} + \dotsm $$
Now you add them up, you see that the RHS becomes $$ -2 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{x^2 + (1-x)^2}{12} + \frac{x^3 + (1-x)^3}{24} + \dotsm $$ $$ \le -2 + 1 + \frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{24} + \dotsm $$
But then showing that the last sum is $\le -1$, seems clear to me but maybe you might want more concrete justification...

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