Assuming the set theory we're working with allows self-containment, as well as arbitrary set building of the form $\{x:\Phi(x)\}$, if we define $S=\{x:x\in x\}$, is $S\in S$ knowable?
As we see from assuming self-containment of $S$ or not, it seems to not give any new information:
$$S\in S \implies S\in S$$
$$S\notin S \implies S\notin S$$
However, unlike Russel's Paradox, there does not seem to be a contradiction for this set's existence (at least naively).
Edit: For clarity, I'm asking if the provability (or rather unprovability of) $S\in S$, is itself, provable.