I should be able to answer this myself, but feel insecure anyway. I want to know, whether a function f(n) is bounded if n goes to infinity (and if it's bounded, the limit). Heuristically it appears (and I assume for generality) that f(n) is monotonuously increasing. But the increase of f(n) for n=1,2,3,4,... diminuishes and -if it eventually converges, then the convergence is much too slow for the estimate for some limit.
So I look at the sequence of f(2^n) and find, that the increase (="$\Delta(n)$") seems to halve at each step. Here is the table of values.
$ \small \begin{array} {cccc} 2^n & f(2^n)& \Delta(n) =f(2^n)-f(2^n/2) & Q(n)=\Delta(n+1)/\Delta(n) \\ 2 & 1.00000000000 & 1.00000000000 & 1.00000000000 \\ 4 & 1.20710678119 & 0.207106781187 & 0.207106781187 \\ 8 & 1.32489552200 & 0.117788740818 & 0.568734351153 \\ 16 & 1.38378655210 & 0.0588910300981 & 0.499971641511 \\ 32 & 1.41323838275 & 0.0294518306501 & 0.500107242156 \\ 64 & 1.42796608046 & 0.0147276977050 & 0.500060518479 \\ 128 & 1.43533039941 & 0.00736431894937 & 0.500031919236 \\ 256 & 1.43901267941 & 0.00368228000046 & 0.500016366181 \\ 512 & 1.44085384991 & 0.00184117050297 & 0.500008283655 \\ 1024 & 1.44177444283 & 0.000920592923335 & 0.500004166833 \\ 2048 & 1.44223474122 & 0.000460298385385 & 0.500002089651 \\ 4096 & 1.44246489089 & 0.000230149674341 & 0.500001046382 \\ 8192 & 1.44257996585 & 0.000115074957672 & 0.500000523580 \end{array} $
As Q(n) tends to 0.5, I think I should conclude, that f(n) is bounded because the sum of all $\Delta$ is bounded, but I feel not sure, whether this is a meaningful conclusion here.
And if it were meaningful: what would then be a reasonable estimate for the upper bound?
[update]: Heuristics suggest, that $$ f(n) \approx { {n-1 \over \log(2)} + {1 \over 2} \over n} $$ and then $$\lim_{n \to \infty} f(n) = {1 \over \log(2)} \approx 1.44269504089 $$
[end update]
The function results of an adaption of the problem, whether for some integer exponent n the sum of the n'th power of the first m numbers can equal (m+1)^n, say whether there exist some natural n>2, m>2, such that $S(m,n) = (m+1)^n $ where $S(m,n)=\sum_{k=1}^m k^n $ .
I convert this in a formulation using the bernoulli-polynomials for the sum of the n'th powers. It is not difficult to find, that m must be greater than n.
By use of the bernoulli-polynomials one can also meaningfully interpolate m to fractional values, say x, in the sum S(m,n). So d(x,n) is the difference $d(x,n) = B(x,n)- (x+1)^n$ where B(x,n) is the Bernoulli-polynomial-generalized form of S(m,n).
With this, for a given integer n, I solve for x such that d(x,n)=0. Again, in general x>n but I want to know, whether x/n is bounded... So I determine $f(n)={\text{<root x of d(x,n)>} \over n} $
Remark: in my earlier notation above in the table I used x where I meant the exponent which I now more meaningfully denote as n.
Well, while I'm writing this: possibly the current problem can be solved on a much simpler way.... (At least I've now a meaningful heuristic, see above)
But my deeper curiosity is about the idea; whether -and to what extend- the above idea of "acceleration of convergence" is/can be made valid for such a type of conclusion at all?