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WHY are we always given $\epsilon > 0$ first, then solving for a $\delta>0$? This is in the limit definition.

I want to ask:

Can we say "given $\delta>0$, there exists $\epsilon>0$"? Since we can always solve for one given the other.

I found three counterexamples, but I don't understand them:

  1. Let $f(x) = \sin x$, let $L$ and $\delta$ be arbitrary real numbers. Then $\epsilon = |L| + 2$ satisfies your definition. (from post)

    Q: What's wrong with setting $\epsilon = |L| + 2$? It's big, but it's not wrong!

  2. Let $f(x) = 1/x$, and let $a = 1$. The definition fails for $\delta \ge 1$, since for any $\epsilon$ we can choose $x=1/(L+\epsilon)$ if $L+\epsilon > 1$, so that $f(x)-L \ge \epsilon$. (from post)

    Q: What are they saying here? At $x=1$, the definition fails for $\epsilon \ge 1$ too! The problem is not $\delta$. The problem is the function is undefined for $x \le 0$.

  3. Counterexample: $\lim\limits_{x \to 0} f(x) = L$

    $f(x) = \begin{cases} \sin \frac{1}{x}, & x \ne 0 \\ 0, & x = 0 \end{cases}$

    Given any $\delta > 0$, we can find $\epsilon > 0$ such that $|f(x) - L| < \epsilon$ whenever $|x| < \delta$. For instance, set $\epsilon = 2$; then any choice of $L \in (-1,1)$ will satisfy this "reversed" situation. (from post)

    Q: I don't see how setting $\epsilon = 2$ violates any definition. I mean, we did find a $\epsilon$ for a given $\delta$.

Thanks all for the pouring answers, I'll get back to each one personally. If I did not choose an answer, that means all submissions are still welcomed! The best answer will be chosen based on # of upvotes (50%) and if I understood it and agree it's the best (50%).

user13985
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    Epsilon and delta are in not one to one correspondence. Consider step function ( greatest integer function) and assume for any delta epsilon is 100. Now see what happens – Cloud JR K Feb 20 '20 at 22:02
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    In a notational sense, you can use $\delta$ in place of $\varepsilon$ and vice-versa, but you cannot reverse the roles that these values play (and you need to use the right quantifiers in the right order). – Dave Feb 20 '20 at 22:03
  • As @Dave mention if it's about notation then its doesn't really matter but if not (then it's a disaster if we change it – Cloud JR K Feb 20 '20 at 22:06
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    The whole point of limit "$\lim_{x\to a}f(x)=L$" is $f(x)$ become arbitrarily close to $L$ when $x$ is sufficiently close to $a.$ Careful thought of this idea would convince you that $\epsilon$ is arbitrary, but $\delta$ is not. And there is no $1-1$ correspondence between them. – Bumblebee Feb 20 '20 at 22:10
  • @CloudJR You are correct. They are not 1-1, but maybe surjection? I have taken out the 1-1 part. – user13985 Feb 20 '20 at 22:12
  • "Given any $\delta > 0$, we can find $\epsilon > 0$ such that $|f(x) - L| < \epsilon$ whenever $|x| < \delta$." This just means that $f$ is bounded (above and below) on every interval $|x| < \delta$. It doesn't tell you anything about the limit as $x \rightarrow 0$. – Jair Taylor Feb 20 '20 at 22:18
  • @Dave What's wrong if I started with $\delta$, then solved for $\epsilon$? We have $\delta(\epsilon)$, $\delta$ as a function of $\epsilon$. It's inverse $\delta^{-1}(\epsilon)$ would also work, no? – user13985 Feb 20 '20 at 22:19
  • @user13985: No, it's not a "surjection". It's a different kind of structure, where each $\epsilon$ maps to a set of admissible $\delta$s, and you can pick the one that is convenient for you. The picking introduces a functional relationship between $\epsilon$ and $\delta$, but only after you make that choice. – nomen Feb 20 '20 at 22:19
  • @JairTaylor: "Given any $\epsilon>0$, we can find $\delta > 0$ such that..." just means x is bounded left and right. To me, bounding $x$ makes even less sense. Am I right? – user13985 Feb 20 '20 at 22:21
  • For starters there is no $\delta^{-1}$ function, i.e. the delta that we get depending on $\varepsilon$ is not unique. Furthermore, the point of the definition is that $\varepsilon$ is fixed and we find $\delta$ based on $\varepsilon$. – Dave Feb 20 '20 at 22:25
  • If you understand definition properly then you can see why for all epsilon there exists delta. Take a book which explains it intuitively for example thomas calculus and try to understand it. We actually want to see if distance between L and f(x) can be made arbitrarily (that's why we use for all ) small ( epsilon small) by making distance between x and x_0 small . The word "Small" I hope is intuitively makes sense although it's not mathematically rigorous – Cloud JR K Feb 20 '20 at 22:32
  • @Dave Yes, I'm aware that they (Newton, Leibniz?) hold $\epsilon$ fixed. But why not $\delta$ intead? After all, BOTH x and y must get close to $L$. Only one of them get close will not do! – user13985 Feb 20 '20 at 22:39
  • Take a look at this question and the old answer of mine and see if it helps. – Jair Taylor Feb 20 '20 at 22:42
  • The $\varepsilon$ is associated the the $|f(x)-f(y)|$ part and the $\delta$ to the $|x-y|$ part, so these are not interchangeable. – Dave Feb 20 '20 at 22:49
  • @Dave, We can write $\delta(\epsilon)$, or $\epsilon^{-1}(\delta)$. Take $y=x^2$ and $x=2$, we can find a neighborhood around $\delta$, $0<|x-2|<\delta$ and say, you give me a $\delta$, I give you a $\epsilon$. – user13985 Feb 20 '20 at 23:14
  • "The problem is the function is undefined for x≤0" That irrelevent as $0< x < \frac 1{\epsilon + 1} < 1$. We aren't taking $x \le 0$. But we have $|\frac 1{\epsilon + 1} - x| < |1-0| \le \delta$. But $f(x)=\frac 1x > \epsilon + 1> 1$ so $|f(x)-1|=f(x) - 1 =\frac 1x -1> \epsilon + 1-1 = \epsilon$. – fleablood Feb 21 '20 at 03:56
  • See this answer. Also the point of limit definition is not to solve inequalities and find $\delta$ in terms of $\epsilon $. – Paramanand Singh Feb 21 '20 at 07:53
  • The existential quantifier means " some value of the variable that makes the statement true" - The point of a finite limit proof is not to prove that $f(x)$ is at some distance of $L$ ( i.e. some $\epsilon$ distance ) , for some given $\delta$ value. I think there would be no point in proving that $f(x)=x²$ is at some distance of 4 as $x$ approaches 2. ( I could pick up number 1000, or 100000000). We do not want $\epsilon$ to we " whatever " for a given $\delta$, we want $\delta$ to be "whatever" ( that actually works) for all supposedly given $\epsilon$ value. –  Mar 10 '20 at 20:18
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    @RayLittleRock That's true. If we picked $\delta$ first, we can always pick a bigger $\epsilon$, which wouldn't make the bound tight. I answered here: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3560152/44802 – user13985 Mar 11 '20 at 16:22
  • For example #2, the function given in that answer actually is defined for all real numbers, contrary to what you claimed. When $x=0$, the definition says $f(x)=0$, and when $x<0$, the definition says $f(x)=1/x$, which is defined for every such value of $x$. So there's no reason we can't set $\delta=2$ (for example) when applying your definition. On the other hand, with the standard definition, $\epsilon\geq1$ is no problem when $a=L=1$; just set $\delta=1/2$ (or smaller; $\delta=0.001$ works fine). – David K Jun 17 '23 at 19:54

8 Answers8

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The point of the definition of limit is to capture the idea that we can force the values of $f$ to be close enough to $L$, provided only that the values of $x$ be sufficiently near $a$: if you tell me how close you want $f(x)$ to be to $L$, I can guarantee this outcome by telling you how close $x$ should be to $a$.

Reversing the logical dependency between $\epsilon$ and $\delta$ makes the logical dependency run the "wrong" way: you are saying that you will tell me how close you want $x$ to be to $a$, and then I will be forced to tell you how close I can guarantee $f(x)$ to be to $L$.

It might seem like this would be good enough, but it doesn't work. It seems to be the same because you may be thinking of the limit as saying "the closer you get to $a$, the closer the values will get to $L$"; but saying the limit is $L$ is more than that: it says that values get arbitrarily close to $L$, and that all values get close to $L$ near $a$, not just some.

If you are allowed to pick the value of $\epsilon$, then you are not guaranteeing that the values get arbitrarily close to $L$, just that they get "sufficiently" close to $L$.

So for example, you want the limit of $f(x)$ to approach at most one thing, not two or more. But say that $f(x)$ always takes values between $-1$ and $1$, as $f(x)=\sin(x)$ does. If I take $L$ to be any value between $-1$ and $1$, and then let $\epsilon=3$, then regardless of what your $\delta$ is, we will indeed satisfy that $|f(x)-L|\lt \epsilon$ whenever $|x-a|<\delta$. So every number between $-1$ and $1$ is a limit. And worse, any number is a limit: if you give me $L=10$, then provided I let $\epsilon>11$, every value of $f(x)$ will be within $\epsilon$ of $L$.

That means this definition doesn't really capture the notion we want the definition of limit to capture.

Remember: to convince me that the limit is $L$, you challenge me to fall within an arbitrarily thin horizontal band around $L$. The challenge lies in how thin the horizontal band it; if you let me pick how thin that band is, then I can make it really fat and have absolutely no challenge at all.

Arturo Magidin
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  • This is bravo! This right here read my mind: "you may be thinking of the limit as saying 'the closer you get to , the closer the values will get to .'" But still not totally convinced yet. – user13985 Feb 21 '20 at 03:47
  • My question: how do you know will it get closer? Where does the closeness come in? The $\delta$-$\epsilon$ proof only shows $(x, y)$ will live in a confined interval. Namely, $x\in (c-\delta, c+\delta) $, $y \in (L-\epsilon, L+\epsilon)$. That does not mean converging to limit $L$. It never said set $\epsilon=0.1$, $\epsilon=0.01$, $\epsilon=0.001$. – user13985 Feb 21 '20 at 03:53
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    @user13985: “How do you know will it get closer?” Sorry, but there’s too many quantities about. You are going to have to specify what “it” and closer to what you are talking about. As to your objection, not that it says that for any $\epsilon$, no matter what it is, you can find a $\delta$. No matter how narrow you make the horizontal band around $L$, there is a way of selecting a vertical band around $a$ so that all values inside the vertical band lie in the horizontal band. That’s how I “know” the values are getting closer to $L$: because I can guarantee they are as close as I want. – Arturo Magidin Feb 21 '20 at 04:29
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    @user13985: Finally, remember that the $\epsilon$-$\delta$ definition tries to recapture the infinitesimal notions (because infinitesimals don’t exist in the usual real numbers): the value of $f(x)$ will be “infinitesimally close” to $L$, provided that $x$ is “infinitesimally close” to $a$. You tell me how close you want the value of $f$ to be to $L$, I tell you how close $x$ has to be to $a$ to make sure the value is that close. – Arturo Magidin Feb 21 '20 at 04:31
  • I get your general idea, but not convinced. My struggle is: what if we played "I give you $\delta$, you give me $\epsilon$" ? I understand the problem is setting $\epsilon=2$ can be too large for functions like $f(x)=\sin x$. But in the reverse situation, given $\epsilon$ then $\delta$, can't the $\delta$ be too large? – user13985 Feb 21 '20 at 14:46
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    @user13985: The $\delta$ can't both be too large and successful. Once the $\epsilon$ gets small enough, I will be forced to pick $\delta$. I may pick it smaller than needed, but I will be forced to pick to small if you give me a small $\epsilon$. In your challenge-response, I don't even need to know what your requirement is, $\epsilon$ can be picked arbitrarily and large enough to fit everything. And if you can pick $\epsilon$ to fit everything, then you aren't really getting any information about the function at all. – Arturo Magidin Feb 21 '20 at 15:22
  • @user13985: What you need to do is to think of the definition as a challenge, not as a game. We are not cooperating. I claim the limit is $L$, and you are doing your best to prove me wrong. You say "Really? Let's see you come within $\epsilon=\frac{1}{10}$." So I find a $\delta$ that works for that. Then you say "I still don't believe you: let's see you come within $\epsilon=0.0000000000000000000054328$" and I have to find a $\delta$ taht works for that $\epsilon$, etc. In your scheme, you say "Let's see you take $x$ this close to $a$" and I just say "Sure; it'll be within $2$ of $L$." – Arturo Magidin Feb 21 '20 at 15:24
  • @user13985: Then you say "take $x$ even closer to $a$". "Still within $2$ of $L$". Etc. There's nothing I am doing that will convince you the limit is $L$ if you didn't believe it already, and the point of the definition is to be able to use it when you don't believe it already. – Arturo Magidin Feb 21 '20 at 15:25
  • I don't see how this explains why we can't have $\delta$ depend on $\epsilon$. The original proof has two parts: 1) given $\epsilon>0$, there exists a corresponding $\delta$. 2) if $0<|x-c|<\delta$, then $|f(x)-L|<\epsilon$. I'm confusing on the first part, why not given $\delta>0$ first?! – user13985 Feb 25 '20 at 02:46
  • Yes, I get your closeness "challenge". But, I can take your entire response above, switch places between $\epsilon$ and $\delta$. The argument still works. As for the $\sin x$ and let $\epsilon=2$ rebuttal, you are finding the limit! Why would you want large $\epsilon$? You want it small. I can break your proof too by saying, hey, choose $\epsilon$ first, but make $\delta$ large, then your original definition of the limit also fails. – user13985 Feb 25 '20 at 02:54
  • @user13985 “I don’t see how this explain why we can’t have $\delta$ depend on $\epsilon$”... Ehr... that is what we have: $\delta$ depends on $\epsilon$. You are trying to make $\epsilon$ depend on $\delta$. $\delta$ is chosen to guarantee the consequent. Again, think of it as a challenge-response. If you let me set the condition that I must meet, then you aren’t challenging me at all. No, you cannot “take my entire reponse and switch places”, no, “the argument does not still work.” In the usual setting, you cannot have the limit be more than one thing. Switch, it can be anything. – Arturo Magidin Feb 25 '20 at 02:55
  • @user13985: No, you aren’t “finding the limit”. What you are doing when you let me set $\epsilon=2$ is you are letting anything between $-1$ and $1$ be the limit. Pick your favorite number between $-1$ and $1$, and I can use your definition to “prove” the limit is that number. Change it, I can use the definition to “prove” the limit is that new number. Pick any number, any value, I can use your definition to show that the limit “is” that value. So you are most definitely not “finding the limit!” You are finding nothing. – Arturo Magidin Feb 25 '20 at 02:55
  • @user13985: So, despite your protestations, no, you are not “getting” the “closeness challenge”. You cannot meet that closeness challenge with your definition. With your definition, every limit has every value, and if you don’t see that, then (i) you don’t understand what your own definition is doing; and (ii) you don’t understand what we’ve been trying to tell you. Your definition is useless because practically every function has every value as a limit at every point. – Arturo Magidin Feb 25 '20 at 03:00
  • The proof begins with "Given $\epsilon>0$, there exists a $\delta$". So, $\delta$ depend on $\epsilon$. No? This thing so soo confusing. And I don't like this comment thing with limited space. I wish this is a forum! – user13985 Feb 25 '20 at 03:00
  • @user13985 Yes, $\delta$ depends on $\epsilon$. You complained about that dependency. If you set $\delta $ first and then choose $\epsilon$, then $\epsilon$ depends on $\delta$, not the other way around. – Arturo Magidin Feb 25 '20 at 03:02
  • Nothing personal, but I don't think you addressed my question on the $f(x)=\sin x$ example. Under the normal definition, choose $\epsilon$ first, then $\delta$. Then, if I choose $\delta=2$ or anything large, that also breaks the proof! Just like how you chose $\epsilon=2$ under my proof to break it. Because for a limit to exists, both $\delta$ and $\epsilon$ has to "corporate", meaning get small. – user13985 Feb 25 '20 at 03:05
  • @user13985: Under the usual definition, given $\epsilon$, a $\delta$ must exist; of course there are $\delta$s that don’t work; but the point is that there are $\delta$s that do work. No matter what $\epsilon$ you give me, I can find a $\delta$ that will work, but only if the limit really is $L$. If the limit is not $L$, then I can use the definition to prove the limit is not $L$. Tell me how to use your definition to prove the limit is of $\sin(x)$ as $x\to 0$ is not $17$. – Arturo Magidin Feb 25 '20 at 03:09
  • My rebuttal: For every given $\delta$, an $\epsilon$ must exist; of course there are $\epsilon$'s that don't work, but there are $\epsilon$'s that do work. My $\sin(x)$ proof in the following comment. – user13985 Feb 25 '20 at 03:19
  • Proof: Given $\delta>0$, we can find an $\epsilon>0$, such that $|\sin(x)-0|<\epsilon$ whenever $|x-0|<\delta$. QED. This looks perfectly to me. In fact, the smaller the $\delta$ your hand me, the smaller $\epsilon$ I'll hand back to you. So, limit is achieve, and not 17! – user13985 Feb 25 '20 at 03:25
  • If you give me $\delta=\pi/2$, I give you $\epsilon=1$. If you give me $\delta=\pi/4$, I give you $\epsilon=sqrt(2)/2$. Looks to me like we are doing fine. If you get closer, I'll follow you and make my $\epsilon$ closer too. – user13985 Feb 25 '20 at 03:29
  • @user13985: I do not see a proof that the limit is not $17$. To give me such a proof, you must exhibit a specific $\delta$ with the property that for every $\epsilon\gt 0$ there exists an $x$ with $0\lt|x|\lt\delta$ but $|\sin(x)-17|\geq \epsilon$. You have not done so, you have not proven it. The problem with your definition is not that it cannot be used to prove that the limit is what it should be. The problem with your definition is that it is overinclusive. It can be used to prove that the limit is practially antyhing. – Arturo Magidin Feb 25 '20 at 03:34
  • @user13985: By contrast, here is a proof in the usual definition that the limit of $\sin(x)$ as $x\to 0$ is not $17$: set $\epsilon =1$. Given any $\delta\gt 0$, let $x=\delta/2$. Then $-1\leq \sin(x)\leq 1$, so $|\sin(x)-17|\geq 16\gt \epsilon$. Hence, for every $\delta\gt 0$ there is an $x$ for which the implication “$0\lt|x|\lt \delta\implies|f(x)-17|\lt \epsilon$” does not hold. Thus, the limit is not $17$. – Arturo Magidin Feb 25 '20 at 03:36
  • @user13985: And in your definition, you don’t get to pick both a specific $\epsilon$ and a specific $\delta$. You give me the $\delta$? Fine. But I get to pick the $\epsilon$. In a challenge-response situation, you don’t get to pick both. Again, it’s not that your definition doesn’t “prove” the limit is $0$. It’s that your definition “proves” the limit is anything. You can use it to prove that the limit of $x$ as $x\to 0$ is anything. – Arturo Magidin Feb 25 '20 at 03:39
  • In my definition, I get to pick a specific $\delta$, and I solve for an $\epsilon$ (i.e. $\epsilon(\delta)$, an $\epsilon$ that depends on $\delta$). Same as what you would do in your definition. Nobody gets to pick anybody's, because they know will pick something large and break the proof. Even in the normal definition, your $\delta$ depend on $\epsilon$. Nobody can pick your $\epsilon$, 'cause they may just pick something big and call it the day. – user13985 Feb 25 '20 at 03:53
  • @user13985: No. In your definition, you pick $\delta$, and I get to pick $\epsilon$ on the basis of $\delta$. You don’t get to pick both. And yes, the point is that I can “break your definition.” That’s why your definition doesn’t work. In the usual definition, you don’t get to pick both $\epsilon$ and $\delta$. You pick $\epsilon$, and then I get to pick $\delta$ on the basis of $\epsilon$. The only alleged difference in your definition is that we pick $\delta$ first. And I still don’t see you proving, using your definition, that the limit of $x$ as $x\to 0$ is not $17$. – Arturo Magidin Feb 25 '20 at 03:57
  • In my definition, why do I only get to pick my $\delta$, but let you pick my $\epsilon$? That's not my intention. Does " Given $\delta>0$, we can find an $\epsilon$>0, such that.." demonstrate I will let you do it. I didn't give any invitation in that statement. It's all me doing it. – user13985 Feb 25 '20 at 04:00
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    @user13985: In the usual definition, I can prove that the limit of $\sin(x)$ as $x\to 0$ is $0$ by showing that no matter what $\epsilon$ you pick, I can find an $\delta$ that will work. In your definition, I can likewise prove that the limit is 17 by showing that no matter what $\delta$ you pick, I can find an $\epsilon$ that will work. In the usual definition, I can prove the limit is not $17$ by showing that no matter what $\delta$ you pick, you can never make it work for $\epsilon=1$. In your definition, you *cannot prove the limit is not $17$, or $1000$, or $-3$. – Arturo Magidin Feb 25 '20 at 04:01
  • @user13985: Why do I get t pick the $\epsilon$? Because we are viewing it as a challenge-reponse. But again: use your definition to prove to me that the limit is not $17$. The problem with your definition is that it “proves” the limit is anything. It is overinclusive. The function $\sin(x)$ has every number as a limit at $0$. EVERY number. No matter what $L$ is, for any $\delta$ you can find $\epsilon$ that works for that $\delta$, whether you pick it or I do. – Arturo Magidin Feb 25 '20 at 04:02
  • Will your/the normal definition survive the challenge-response? I'll break yours too! :) I claim that my definition works if I pick $\delta$, then solve for $\epsilon$. Just like how you solved one for the other. Only then, it's a fair game to say mine don't work. I'm not sure how to do a disproof in general, so you need to give me a day to figure it out. – user13985 Feb 25 '20 at 04:09
  • @user13985: Yes, the normal definition survives the challenge response. No, you cannot break mine. Again, your definition allows you to prove the limit is the right thing. But it also allows you to prove that the limit is the wrong thing. It’s overinclusive. And your continual failure to engage with that is making this a waste of both our time. – Arturo Magidin Feb 25 '20 at 04:35
  • I just answered my own question. https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3560152/44802 I call it "you-must-do-reverse-engineering-to-make-sure-forward-engineering-works". Not sure if a disproof is necessary in understanding the problem. – user13985 Feb 25 '20 at 20:11
  • Please note the last paragraph of my answer! :) – user13985 Feb 25 '20 at 20:14
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The definition of a limit involves the sentences of the form "for every $\varepsilon>0$ there exists $\delta>0$ such that...". It is not possible to replace this with "for every $\delta>0$ there exists $\varepsilon>0$ such that..." - you get a different, and certainly not equivalent sentence.

This is a purely logical argument. "for every $x$ there exists $y$" is not the same as "for every $y$ there exists $x$". You can find examples from everyday life:

  • "every book has been written by a human" is not the same as "every human has written a book"
  • "every monkey lives in a jungle" is not the same as "in every jungle there lives a monkey"

and so on and so forth.

For a more mathematical example: "for every real number $x$ there is a real number $y$ such that $y=x^2$" (which is true) is not the same as "for every real number $y$ there is a real number $x$ such that $y=x^2$" (which is false).

  • That makes some sense. But there is a mapping $f: x \rightarrow y$. In particular, you had $y=x^2$. And y is not uniquely mapped to a single x, which is fine. Because the $\delta$-$\epsilon$ definition just says there has to exists just one $\delta$. – user13985 Feb 20 '20 at 23:05
  • @user13985 : When you say $\delta-\epsilon$ in your previous comment - do you mean "standard" definition or do you mean your definition with swapped $\epsilon$ and $\delta$? If you mean the standard definition, as it seems to me, then no - the standard definition does not imply uniqueness of $\delta$ - it just needs to exist. There may be many $\delta$'s for any given $\epsilon$ (and usually, when you find such $\delta$, any smaller $\delta$ would also do). –  Feb 20 '20 at 23:13
  • I meant the standard/regular definition. So, you shouldn't require my swapped definition to be unique either. In your example $y=x^2$, it seems to suggest my swapped definition failed, because there's no unique epsilon for my delta. – user13985 Feb 20 '20 at 23:17
  • @user13985 Not just that there isn't a unique one - there may not be any one. Set $y=-1$. –  Feb 20 '20 at 23:18
  • You answer emphasized the difference between injections and surjections. – user13985 Feb 20 '20 at 23:19
  • @user13985 Possibly, but that is just because I've chosen a functional relation in the first place. In general, the relation between $\epsilon$ and $\delta$ is just that - a relation, a subset of $(0,+\infty)\times(0,+\infty)$ of "satisfactory" pairs $(\epsilon, \delta)$, and that relation may satisfy the condition the "standard way", but may very well not satisfy the "swapped" condition, if you know what I mean... –  Feb 20 '20 at 23:22
  • If you imagine that relation as its graph, as some sort of "shape" in the first quadrant of $\epsilon-\delta$ coordinate system, then really the "standard" condition is about what happens when you "project" it to the $\epsilon$ axis (will it cover the whole $\epsilon$-axis or not) and your swapped condition is about what happens when you "project" it to the $\delta$ axis (will it cover the whole $\delta$-axis or not). –  Feb 20 '20 at 23:26
  • I just began analysis, I actually don't know relation graph. – user13985 Feb 20 '20 at 23:30
  • @user13985 All I am saying - look at relation between $\epsilon$ and $\delta$ not as a function but as a full-blown relation (which is potentially many-to-many, or, more precisely, zero-or-more to zero-or-more)... One way to see it is to plot the "satisfactory" points $(\epsilon, \delta)$ in the co-ordinate system, but what you will see is not a neat curved line like a function graph, but more like a splodge of some sort. –  Feb 20 '20 at 23:40
4

Well, you can say given a $\delta$ there exists an $\epsilon$. It's just that you DO anything interesting with that result.

Let's suppose we want to prove that $\lim_{x\to \frac \pi 4} \sin x = 5$.

That is obviously not true. So if we can prove it we have obviously done something wrong.

Well let's let $\delta$ be any $\delta> 0$. And let's let $\epsilon > 7$.

Whenever $|x- \frac \pi 4| < \delta$ then $-1\le \sin x \le 1$ and $-6 \le \sin x - 5 \le -4$ and $|\sin x - 5| < 6 < 7$.

Thus we have proven that for every $\delta$ there exist an $\epsilon> 0$ so that whenever $|x -\frac \pi 4| < \delta\implies |\sin x - 5| < \epsilon$.

What does that prove? Does it prove $\lim_{x\to \frac \pi 4} \sin x= 5$?

No it does not. It doesn't prove a damned thing because finding an $\epsilon>0$ so that $|x-\frac \pi 4| < \delta \implies |\sin x - 5|$, although certainly is possible, doesn't prove anything because .... it can always happen. It isn't interesting!

You say it is big but it's not wrong. I say it is not wrong but it isn't useful! You can't do anything with it.

RESULT 1

Proving that for every $\delta$ there exists an $\epsilon > 0$ so that whenever $|x-a|< \delta \implies |f(x) - L|< \epsilon$ does NOT mean $\lim_{x\to a}f(x) = L$.

Now let's consider then opposite

Does $\lim_{x\to a}f(x) = L$ mean for every $\delta$ there exists an $\epsilon > 0$ so that whenever $|x-a|< \delta \implies |f(x)-L| < \epsilon$?

The second example is that if $f(x) = \frac 1x$ then $\lim_{x\to 1} f(x) = 1$. (You said the function is undefined at $x =1$. But $f(1) = \frac 11 = 1$. That most certainly IS defined.)

But it is not true that for every $\delta$ there exists an $\epsilon > 0$ so that whenever $|x-a|< \delta \implies |f(x)-L| < \epsilon$

If we take $\delta = 1.1$ we can't find any $\epsilon$ so that if $|x - 1| < \delta = 1.1$ then $|f(x)-1| < \epsilon$. For any $\epsilon$ we might consider $x= \frac 1{\epsilon + 2}$ and $0 < \frac 1{\epsilon + 2}=x< 1$ so $|x-1| < \delta$. But we $|f(x) -1|=|\epsilon + 2-1|=|\epsilon + 1| > \epsilon$ even though $|x - 1| < \delta$.

So

Result 2

$\lim_{x\to a}f(x) = L$ does NOT mean for every $\delta$ there exists an $\epsilon > 0$ so that whenever $|x-a|< \delta \implies |f(x)-L| < \epsilon$?

.....

So what good is that condition?

The condition does NOT show us that limits exist.

And limits existing does NOT imply the condition.

So what good is the condition? What can we do with it?

And the answer is .... nothing really. I mean, it may or may not be true in and of its own right but it's not likely to be significant. It just is not interesting.

fleablood
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  • Great post, but not sure if I follow everything! Let me first clarify some things in your post. Should line 5 be $|x-4| < \delta$, not $x$? Second, your Result 1 referred to my post. In my post, I meant, the function $f(x)=\frac{1}{x}$, choosing $x=1$, is not defined when $\delta \ge 1$. Namely, $x-\delta$ would be less than 0. I have now updated it. – user13985 Feb 21 '20 at 02:49
  • Yes it should be $|x-4|< \delta$. But what to you mean $x=1$ is not defined when $\delta > 1$? $x=1$ is always defined. Um.... so what if $x-\delta < 0$? That happens every time $x < \delta$. Why would you think anything is wrong with that? – fleablood Feb 21 '20 at 03:48
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  1. Since sine is continuous, for any $a$, we should have a single limit, $L$, for each $a$. As Ilmari Karonen points out, the reversed definition does not succeed with a single value of $L$, it succeeds with arbitrary choices of $L$. When $L$ is allowed to be arbitrary, then the output of sine is simultaneously close to infinitely many non-close real numbers. This is absurd -- the output of sine can't be close to two non-close real number at any (much less every) real input.
  2. You are ignoring that the source example set $a = 1$ and $L = 1$. $f$ is continuous on $\Bbb{R} \smallsetminus \{0\}$, so is certainly continuous at $x = a = 1$. The value of the function is $1^{-1} = 1 = L$. So whatever definition of continuous you use, it has to hold for $a = L = 1$ for this $f$. The reverse definition fails to detect continuity here, so is not a definition of continuity.
  3. $\sin(1/x)$ is discontinuous at $x = 0$. The reversed definition fails to detect this discontinuity, so is not a definition of continuity.
Eric Towers
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  • For point #3, I'm actually using $delta$-$\epsilon$ to prove limit at $x=0$, not continuity. So, is there anything wrong now? – user13985 Feb 20 '20 at 22:36
  • @user13985 : $\delta$-$\varepsilon$ is a definition of continuity. We have external definitions of continuity and discontinuity (removable, jump, infinite, essential, et al.). If your reverse definition fails to agree, it is not a definition of continuity. – Eric Towers Feb 20 '20 at 22:40
  • All my questions are regarding limit proof. How would point #3 violate limit definition? – user13985 Feb 20 '20 at 22:42
  • A continuous function agrees with its limits at any point of continuity. If we show your definition fails to capture this property, then your definition is broken. – Eric Towers Feb 20 '20 at 22:43
  • Not sure if I'm getting your point. The difference between limit and continuity proof is the condition that $|x-c|<\delta$ and $x \ne c$ vs. $|x-c|<\delta$. – user13985 Feb 20 '20 at 22:47
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    @user13985 : Take a function, continuous at $a$, through the point $(a,L)$. We know that function agrees with its limit at $a$. If your definition of "limit" fails to produce that agreement, you do not have a working definition of limit. And vice versa. – Eric Towers Feb 21 '20 at 04:14
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I think you need to understand the motivation behind the concept of limit of a function.

The concept of limit allows us to study local behavior of a function. The term "local behavior" means behavior in a certain neighborhood of a point. I hope you are aware of the term neighborhood. If you are not familiar then a neighborhood of a point $c$ is any open interval $I$ containing $c$. Now here comes the dilemma that a neighborhood $I$ of $c$ necessarily contains points other than $c$ and thus $I$ also acts as a neighborhood of another point $d$ with $d\neq c$. Then how does studying the behavior of a function in some neighborhood $I$ of $c$ remains related (or shall we say local) to $c$?

Well, to answer that question convince yourself of the obvious fact that if $c\neq d$ then we can find a neighborhood $I$ of $c$ and a neighborhood of $J$ of $d$ such that they have no points in common ie $I\cap J=\emptyset $. Further if the difference $|c-d|$ is small then we need to deal with smaller neighborhoods $I$ and $J$ to ensure $I\cap J=\emptyset$. Thus if we truly want to study the behavior of a function local to a point $c$ (and not local to another nearby point $d $) then we have to deal with arbitrarily small neighborhoods of $c$.

There is another catch here. We specifically do not want to study the behaviour of $f$ at $c$ precisely because it's trivial (just evaluate $f(c) $ and you are done). That brings us to the concept of deleted neighborhood. If $I$ is a neighborhood of $c$ then set $I\setminus\{c\} $ is a deleted neighborhood of $c$.

Thus we have the following problem :

Let $f$ be a real valued function defined in a certain deleted neighborhood of $c$. How does $f$ behave (in terms of trend of its values) in arbitrarily small deleted neighborhoods of $c$?

Some notations were invented to specify the above problem concisely and then the problem can be stated as

How do the values $f(x) $ behave as $x\to c$?

To answer this question we need to specify precisely the kind of behavior we are interested in. More specifically we are interested in knowing whether the values of $f(x) $ lie near some specific number $L$ (they may equal $L$ also) when we start considering all the values of $x$ lying in arbitrarily small deleted neighborhoods of $c$. If this happens to be the case then we say that the limit of $f$ at $c$ is $L$ or symbolically $\lim\limits _{x\to c} f(x) =L$.

Now comes the problem of making this statement as precise as possible and yet being reasonably useful. One important aspect is that if the values of $f$ are near $L$ then we have to ensure that they are not near $M$ for any $M\neq L$. As before this forces us consider the disjoint neighborhoods of $L$ and $M$. And since the difference $|L-M|$ can be arbitrarily small we need to consider arbitrarily small neighborhoods of $L$.

Another aspect is that we need to consider all points of neighborhood of $c$. This is to disallow the following kind of behavior: for every deleted neighborhood $I$ of $c$ there are some points in $I$ where values of $f$ are near $L$ and further there are some other points in $I$ where values of $f$ are not near $L$.

Finally we need to respect the following principle of local behavior:

If $f, g$ are two real valued functions and there exists a deleted neighborhood $I$ of $c$ such that $f(x) =g(x) $ for all $x\in I$ then their local behavior at $c$ must be same.

Taking into consideration these aspects we reach the modern definition of limiting behavior :

Let $f$ be a real valued function defined in a certain deleted neighborhood of $c$. A number $L$ is said to be the limit of $f$ at $c$ if for every neighborhood $J$ of $L$ there is a corresponding deleted neighborhood of $I$ of $c$ such that $f(I) \subseteq J$.

The positive numbers $\epsilon, \delta$ are used to quantify the size of neighborhoods $J$ and $I$ respectively.

It should come as a bit of a surprise that to deal with behavior of $f$ in arbitrarily small neighborhoods of $c$ we have to define a concept which needs arbitrary neighborhoods of $L$ instead of such neighborhoods of $c$. However there is no apparent paradox here as once we determine the suitable deleted neighborhood $I$ of $c$ it includes all smaller neighborhoods. So the definition does consider the values of $x$ in arbitrarily small deleted neighborhoods of $c$.

If we try to proceed according to your suggestion in question then we can't have a precise definition of limiting behavior. More formally your approach does not give a clear yes/no answer to the question: do values of $f$ lie near $L$ when $x\to c$?

If you think carefully you will also notice that it violates the principle of local behavior. Consider two functions $f, g$ defined via $$f(x) =1/x,x\neq 0,f(0)=0$$ and $$g(x) =1/x,x\in[1/2,2],g(x)=1 \text{ otherwise} $$ Clearly they have same values in the neighbourhood $(1/2,2)$ of $I$ and hence their limiting behavior as $x\to 1$ should be same. According to your approach let's choose $L=1,\delta=2$ and then we have no value of $\epsilon$ which works for $f$ but there are values of $\epsilon$ which work for $g$.


To sum up, given a function $f$ and a point $c$ under consideration we fix a specific behavior by giving a proposed limit $L$ and a margin of error $\epsilon$ and then try to figure out whether the function really behaves in this specific manner in some neighborhood of $c$ or not. If a suitable $\delta$ exists then $f$ does have that specific behavior otherwise it does not.

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If I understand you correctly, you want to say that $ \lim \limits _ { x \to a } f ( x ) = L $ if and only if, for each $ \delta > 0 $, for some $ \epsilon > 0 $, whenever $ \lvert x - a \rvert < \delta $, then $ \lvert f ( x ) - L \rvert < \epsilon $. Correct? (Here, I've swapped the roles of $ \delta $ and $ \epsilon $ from their usual roles in the first place where each appears, but kept them in their usual roles in the second place where each appears.)

Consider the following two examples, one of which meets your definition but is not the correct limit, and one of which fails your definition but is the correct limit:

  1. $ f ( x ) = \cases { 0 & for \( x \ne 0 \) \\ 1 & for \( x = 0 \) } $, $ a = 0 $, $ L = 1 $;
  2. $ f ( x ) = 1 / x $, $ a = 1 $, $ L = 1 $.

In (1), given any $ \delta > 0 $, pick $ \epsilon = 2 $; then no matter what, $ \lvert f ( x ) - L \rvert < \epsilon $. Yet this is not a limit. In (2), given $ \delta = 1 $, pick any $ \epsilon > 0 $; then if $ x = 1 / ( \epsilon + 1 ) $, we have $ \lvert x - a \rvert < \delta $, but $ \lvert L - f ( x ) \rvert \geq \epsilon $. Yet this is a limit.

More fundamentally, you've made this about large errors instead of small ones. If you want to prove something continuous (by your proposed definition), just pick a big enough $ \epsilon $ to cover all nearby values of the function; that's what I did in (1). But you can be defeated if $ \delta $ is big enough to reach arbitrarily large values of the function; that's what I did in (2).

Toby Bartels
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  • Yes, you caught my point. But, the standard definition just says "give me an epsilon, I give you back a delta". 1) It didn't indicate how large the epsilon is either. 2) I can make $\epsilon$ depend on $\delta$. $\delta(\epsilon)$ or, I can instead solve for $\epsilon^{-1})\delta)$. – user13985 Feb 20 '20 at 23:26
  • Neither definition says whether $\delta$ or $\epsilon$ is large or small, but your definition still suggests that they should be large, while the standard one suggests that they should be small. This is because a small $\epsilon$ makes it harder to prove that a limit exists, but a small $\delta$ makes it easier; while in your definition, a large $\delta$ makes it harder to prove that a limit exists, while a large $\epsilon$ makes it easier. ($\forall$ is supposed to make something harder to prove, while $\exists$ makes it easier; that's why I'm looking for harder/easier when I do.)
  • – Toby Bartels Feb 20 '20 at 23:36
  • $\epsilon$ may be as small as you like. There is not limit to how small it can be and by making $\delta$ depending on $\epsilon$ that assures there will never be a limit. If we solve $\epsilon$ in terms of $\delta$ then we will have no way of knowing if there is or is not a limit on it. And if there is a limit, then...It's useless... And before you ask, going the other way doesnt put a limit on the $\delta$. As the delta is preposition in: IF $|x-a|< \delta THEN |f(x)-L|<\epsilon$ and not the CONCLUSION* a limit is impossible. We just take delta smaller than we solved for. – fleablood Feb 20 '20 at 23:37
  • Sure, my definition would suggest it's large. My intuition has always been that, you have $x$ first, then map it to $y$, through $f$. Change in $x$ controls the change in $y$. If there's not $x$ defined, then, there would never be a $y$, let alone an error $\epsilon$. – user13985 Feb 20 '20 at 23:39
  • Maybe this will be better: in the regular/standard definition, $|f(x) - L| < \epsilon$ whenever $|x-c|<\delta$. Within the $\delta$ interval, it doesn't say that epsilon will get smaller with delta together. In fact, within the interval, delta could be keep on decreasing, but maybe epsilon will decrease, then increase, then decrease again. – user13985 Feb 21 '20 at 00:00
  • In example (2) from my answer, you could (for the standard definition) take $\delta=\epsilon/(1+\epsilon)$, which inverts to $\epsilon=\delta/(1-\delta)$. It's fair to say that this (or anything larger) will give the $\epsilon$ that works in your definition, as long as it's positive. Unfortunately, it's negative if $\delta<1$ and undefined (essentially infinite) if $\delta=1$, and that's why $\delta=1$ (or larger) will break your definition on this example. But the standard definition is fine, since $\epsilon/(1+\epsilon)$ is always positive (as long as $\epsilon>0$).
  • – Toby Bartels Feb 21 '20 at 00:07
  • Conversely, in example (1), your definition works taking $\epsilon=2$, a constant function. Or just to make it injective, since you can always pick a larger $\epsilon$, use $\epsilon=\delta+2$, which inverts to $\delta=\epsilon-2$. This would work in the standard definition, again as long as the $\delta$ so obtained is always positive. Unfortunately, for $\epsilon=2$ will break this. (This time, there was some slack in the function for $\epsilon$, and you actually have to go down to $\epsilon=1$ to show that this is not a limit.) – Toby Bartels Feb 21 '20 at 00:15
  • So in the end, the people talking about how the modulus of the limit is not surjective are correct. (The modulus is the function that gives $\delta$ as a function of $\epsilon$, or in your case gives $\epsilon$ as a function of $\delta$.) A limit whose modulus leaves out large values of $\delta$ will fail your definition. And a limit-by-your-definition whose modulus leaves out small positive values of $\epsilon$ will fail the standard definition. So they are not equivalent. [End of reply to point 2.] – Toby Bartels Feb 21 '20 at 00:19