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Regarding the standard formulation of the division algorithm:

If $a,b$ are integers with $b > 0$, then there exists unique $q,r$ such that $a = bq + r$ with $0 \leq r < b$.

The standard proof of existence is to invoke the well ordering principle on the set $$S = \{ \, j \in \mathbb{N} \, | \, j = a - bn \text{ for some } n \in \mathbb{Z} \, \}.$$ Here we are taking the naturals to include 0. One can easily show that the set $S$ is nonempty in both cases, $a \geq 0$ and $a < 0$, and since defined to be a subset of $\mathbb{N}$, the Well Ordering Principle (when modified to be for sets of nonnegative numbers instead of positive numbers) guarantees a least element, say $r = a - bq$. By definition $r \geq 0$, so to finish the existence proof we need to show $r < b$. To show that $r < b$ one usually proceeds by contradiction, and easily obtains the result.

Edit: In particular, one does the following: We have $r = a-bq$ which is minimal over the set $S$. We want to show $r < b$. Suppose on the contrary $r = a - bq \geq b$. Then $a \geq b + bq = b(1+q)$ which means $a - b(1+q) \geq 0$, but we can see that this contradicts the minimality of $r = a-bq$.

My question is: can the division algorithm (the step of existence where $r < b$) be proven without contradiction?

Thinking about this question got me wondering - in order to precisely answer this question you would either need to:

  1. Exhibit a proof that is not by contradiction
  2. Somehow prove that a direct proof exists, without exhibiting it
  3. Prove that no direct proof exists.

Although my knowledge is naive and scarce, I am aware the concept of proving independence, thus showing that no proof of a certain proposition (say, The Continuum Hypothesis) exists in ZF/ZFC. But is there any knowledge of independence for a certain type of proof ? Has anyone done work on showing, perhaps, that certain propositions cannot be proven without contradiction, or other proof styles? In that case I suppose it would mean that in the axiomatic framework (ZF/ZFC or PA) together with constructive logic, then the statement is independent?

Bill Dubuque
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Prince M
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    @DonThousand The main problem with proofs by contradiction is that some rely on $$\lnot \lnot p \implies p$$ so they don't work in constructive mathematics. That said, often we have some form of the "law of the excluded middle" baked into the theory itself, so I don't know why people worry about contradiction in those cases. – Brian Moehring Oct 28 '19 at 23:46
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    Hi Don, unfortunately you are incorrect. First of all, I am not asking anything about proving the uniqueness portion of the division algorithm, I am talking about a step of the existence proof that uses contradiction. Second of all, many uniqueness proofs (including the one for the division algorithm) are not by contradiction. When you begin a uniqueness proof by saying "suppose a and a' both satisfy the properties" it does not mean to assume that $a \neq a'$. You are simply showing that any two things satisfying the defining property must be equal, which is a direct proof of uniqueness. – Prince M Oct 28 '19 at 23:46
  • What Brian mentions in his comment is what I am referring to when I mention "constructive logic" which differs from classical logic in that it does not allow the law of the excluded middle, which means the method of proof by contradiction does not hold. – Prince M Oct 28 '19 at 23:49
  • @BrianMoehring Yea I'm aware, it just seems like people pick and choose when they are upset with LEM – Rushabh Mehta Oct 28 '19 at 23:49
  • @PrinceM Note that in the particular case you've chosen, the order on the integers should be total even in a constructive model of $\mathbb{Z},$ so contradiction would work even there. I'm not saying there aren't issues when using contradiction with constructive mathematics, but the toy problem you've chosen doesn't really exhibit the property you seem to want. – Brian Moehring Oct 28 '19 at 23:53
  • @BrianMoehring This is true, but I personally have no issues with LEM, I am more curious if the known methods for independence such as forcing, ramified forcing etc. (which I know nothing about) can be used for this type of pseudo -independence I talk about. My area is algebraic geometry but I have always been lightly intrigued by mathematical logic and proof theory, so I wanted to see what kind of stuff I could learn from the mathematical logicians on here by asking this. – Prince M Oct 28 '19 at 23:56
  • For example, I believe constructive proofs are well understood in proof theory with concepts of "a witness". I was hoping to find out if these types of concepts exist in for constructive logic or showing independence from a style of proof. – Prince M Oct 28 '19 at 23:57
  • @DonThousand, no one said I was afraid of LEM / proofs by contradiction. No one said I was asking this question because I don't accept the result with a proof by contradiction. I am also not afraid to invoke full power of the axiom of choice. The point of the questions is that I am genuinely interested in knowing if the proof exists without contradiction, because I think that is interesting, don't you? Does it not tickle your brain a little bit to think about how one would go about proving that a proposition cannot be proven without doing a proof by contradiction? If only Kurt G. was here – Prince M Oct 29 '19 at 00:00
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    Right, and some of these questions might be "good questions" for the right people (personally, I don't know enough to answer them or even evaluate them). The concern I have is that you aren't going to get the right people to look at this problem with the title, tags, and opening statements you've made here. – Brian Moehring Oct 29 '19 at 00:01
  • Edit away on the title and tags Brian! I usually just let my questions marinate until Asaf K. finds them and makes my title and tags what they should be. Ha! – Prince M Oct 29 '19 at 00:02
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    I've edited the tags and title to try to pull away from the toy NT problem. As I mentioned before, I think focusing on the order on $\mathbb{Z}$ is going to derail what I perceive to be your intent. Feel free to change them back if I'm incorrect. – Brian Moehring Oct 29 '19 at 00:15
  • Nah, I think they are just fine. Thanks Brian! And @BillDubuque, I added the piece you requested. – Prince M Oct 29 '19 at 00:20
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    @PrinceM Ah you are asking about the existence part, not uniqueness (I misread). That can instead be done by induction. – Bill Dubuque Oct 29 '19 at 00:25
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    @PrinceM Interpreted constructively on naturals the induction corresponds to the following recursive function: r(a,b) := if a < b then a else rem(a-b,b). Is that not constructive in your context? – Bill Dubuque Oct 29 '19 at 00:34
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    "rem(a-b,b)" should be "r(a-b,b)" above (5 min edit timer expired) – Bill Dubuque Oct 29 '19 at 00:41

2 Answers2

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the standard method is to invoke the well ordering principle on a properly defined set.

This is a bad proof, as it is non-constructive (as you noticed) without good reason. But there are several good constructive proofs. In my short-ish teaching career, I've written up two inductive proofs. Often, the case $a \geq 0$ is treated first (as a lemma), and then the general case is derived from it. There are two ways to prove the $a \geq 0$ case: either by induction on $a$ (going from $a$ to $a+1$ either increments $r$ without changing $q$, or resets $r$ to $0$ while incrementing $q$ -- and you can probably tell which case happens when), or by strong induction on $a$ (separating between the $a < b$ case, in which case you can just set $q = 0$ and $r = b$, and the $a \geq b$ case, in which case you can subtract $b$ from $a$ and increment $q$). There are also two ways to deduce the general case from the $a \geq 0$ case: either you add a sufficiently large multiple of $b$ to $a$ so that $a$ becomes nonnegative, or you replace $a$ by $-a$ and mess around with $q$ and $r$ (somewhat awkwardly requiring two cases). Oh, and there is also a way to prove the general case by two-sided induction, thus avoiding the need to factor out the $a \geq 0$ case as a lemma (but at the cost of having two induction steps, one upward and one downward).

For full details, see

(The first source uses two-sided induction; the second uses strong induction.)

That said, even the non-constructive proof using the well-ordering principle can be salvaged with some nontrivial work.

Indeed, assume that $R$ is a subset of $\mathbb{N}$ that is inhabited (i.e., there exists some element of $R$; this is the constructively useful version of nonemptiness) and has a decidable membership (i.e., there is a function $f : \mathbb{N} \to \left\{0,1\right\}$ such that any $n \in \mathbb{N}$ satisfies $n \in R$ if and only if $f\left(n\right) = 1$). Then, $R$ has a smallest element (constructively). To prove this, you just pick the witness $r \in R$ for the inhabitedness of $R$, and compute $f\left(0\right), f\left(1\right), \ldots, f\left(r\right)$; the first time you obtain $1$, you have found the smallest element of $R$.

Now, I assume you want to apply this to $R = \left\{ r \in \mathbb{N} \mid a = qb+r \text{ for some } q \in \mathbb{Z} \right\}$. It is easy to see that this set $R$ is constructively inhabited (by $r = a$ if $a \in \mathbb{N}$, and otherwise, e.g., by $r = \left(1-b\right)a$). Does $R$ have decidable membership? Yes, but I believe that this takes a while to prove if you don't already have division with remainder in your backpack. It boils down to checking whether an integer $u$ is divisible by $b$. Well, if it is, then the quotient has absolute value $\leq \left|u\right|$, so there are only finitely many options to check. Not very nice, but constructive.

  • In your last two paragraphs where we have a constructive analogue to the approach via the well-ordering principle, it seems to me, unless I am missing something, we have established the existence of $q,r$ with the desired property and we have established that $r \geq 0$. It should remain to check $r < b$, yes? Can we do so constructively following our work to this point? – Prince M Oct 30 '19 at 21:25
  • @PrinceM: We have found an $r$ that is a smallest element of $R$. It satisfies either $r < b$ or $r \geq b$ (since inequalities between nonnegative integers are decidable; this is one of the most basic facts in the construction of the number system). Since $r \geq b$ leads to a contradiction (because it implies that $r-b$ is an element of $R$ that is smaller than $b$), we thus have $r < b$. – darij grinberg Oct 30 '19 at 21:55
  • Keeping in mind that my knowledge of constructive mathematics is novice, deduction by contradiction is not frowned upon in this situation where we have two cases and one leads to a contradiction, since have reason to assert $A \vee B$ and then we can show $\neg B$ to deduce $A$. Which is different than assuming the law of the excluded middle? – Prince M Oct 30 '19 at 22:07
  • Er, more cleanly stated, this is still a valid argument in constructive logic: [$A \vee B$, $\neg B$, \therefore A$] ? – Prince M Oct 30 '19 at 22:09
  • And we can use this form in the case where $B = \neg A$, as long as $A \vee \neg A$ has been established, and what you are saying is that since inequalities between nonnegative integers are decidable, we have established $A \vee \neg A$? – Prince M Oct 30 '19 at 22:14
  • @Brian Moehring is this what you were talking about in the comments, about the order on $\mathbb{Z}$? – Prince M Oct 30 '19 at 22:17
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    @PrinceM: Yes, this is a valid argument. It is a particular case of the or-elimination rule $\left[A \vee B, A \implies C, B \implies C\right] \implies C$. In this case, we set $C = A$, and we prove $B \implies C$ via $\perp$ (by explosion), whereas $A \implies C$ follows straight from $C = A$. – darij grinberg Oct 30 '19 at 22:26
  • the only thing I don't follow in what you wrote above was "we prove $B \implies C$ via $\bot$". I'm familiar with the structure of the or elimination rule as you have given it, I get that we are setting $C = A$, I get that $A \implies C$ follows from $A = C$, but don't see how $B \implies C = A$ via $bot$? – Prince M Nov 06 '19 at 00:23
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    @PrinceM: You have $\neg B$, thus $B \implies \perp \implies A$. – darij grinberg Nov 06 '19 at 01:56
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That use of contradiction arises essentially due to use of induction in the form of well-ordering, i.e. descent to "minimal criminal". We can eliminate this use of contradiction by reformulating the induction in ascent form - as a strong induction on $\,a,\,$ i.e.

if $\, a < b\,$ then $\, a\, = \,b\cdot 0 + a,\,$ else by induction $\, a-b\, =\, bq+r\,$ $\Rightarrow\,a\, =\, b(q\!+\!1) + r$

Interpreted constructively we obtain a recursive remainder algorithm on naturals $\,a,b>0$

$r(a,b)\ :=\ $ if $\,a < b\,$ then $\,a\,$ else $\,r(a\!-\!b,b)\ \ $ ; $\, r = $ remainder of $\,a\div b$

which repeatedly subtracts $\,b\,$ till we land in the sought residue range $\,0\le r< b\,$ for $\,r = a\bmod b$

Remark $ $ For another common example of descent of $\,\lnot P\,$ vs. ascent of $\,P\,$ see here on the proof of existence of prime factorizations. Alas, it's quite common that proofs that are innately constructive are presented in nonconstructive form (a ubiquitous example is Euclid's constructive proof that there are infinitely many primes, which sadly is quite commonly presented as a proof by contradiction).

Bill Dubuque
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  • This is really interesting, and also coincidental. I got started down this road because I was restudying Euclid's proof to show to a friend, and was thinking about how it is commonly misinterpreted as being "by contradiction" (where the reader thinks the finite list of primes is assumed to be all of the primes). Somehow this led me to reading about the "minimal criminal", but the duality you pointed out in your answer was not apparent to me. – Prince M Oct 30 '19 at 21:29
  • So, you may have some commentary on this, it seems by choosing to go one way (formulating as descent resulting in use of contradiction) we will make constructionists upset, and the other way (formulating as ascent) we might possibly make finitists upset (since it seems, approaching this way leads to repeating some set of instructions ad infitum)? Does that make any sense? – Prince M Oct 30 '19 at 21:40
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    There isn't much for a finitist to object to here. Bill described this as "ascent", but a typical way of understanding the recursive algorithm is that $a$ and $b$ are given, and either we finish if $a<b$, or we proceed with $a'=a-b$ which is smaller, and this bottoms out in a finite number of steps. The ascent back up is bounded by the finite $a$ and $b$. I think even an ultrafinitist might be fine with this this algorithm for feasible choices of $a$ and $b$. – Dan Doel Oct 31 '19 at 01:09