Show that the function $f:[-1,1]\to \mathbb{R}$ $$ f(x):=\sqrt{1-x} \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{x^k}{\sqrt{k}} $$ is well-defined and continuous at the point $1$.
1 Answers
Suppose that $a(x)=\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n x^n$ and $b(x)=\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}b_n x^n$ converge when $|x|<1$, all $b_n$ are positive, and $\lim\limits_{x\ \uparrow\ 1}b(x)=\infty$. If $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\dfrac{a_n}{b_n}=\lambda$ exists then $\lim\limits_{x\ \uparrow\ 1}\dfrac{a(x)}{b(x)}=\lambda$.
For a proof, replacing $a(x)$ with $a(x)-\lambda b(x)$, we may assume that $\lambda=0$. Now if $\varepsilon>0$ is arbitrary, and $|a_n/b_n|<\varepsilon$ when $n>N$, then for $0<x<1$ $$\left|\frac{a(x)}{b(x)}\right|\leqslant\frac{1}{b(x)}\left|\sum_{n=1}^{N}a_n x^n\right|+\varepsilon\underset{x\ \uparrow\ 1}{\longrightarrow}\varepsilon,$$ i.e. $\limsup\limits_{x\ \uparrow\ 1}|a(x)/b(x)|\leqslant\varepsilon$. As $\varepsilon$ is arbitrary, we have $\lim\limits_{x\ \uparrow\ 1}\big(a(x)/b(x)\big)=0$ as claimed.
Now apply the above to $$a(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{x^n}{\sqrt{n}},\quad b(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x}}-1=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(2n-1)!!}{(2n)!!}x^n.$$ We have $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{(2n)!!}{(2n-1)!!\sqrt{n}}=\sqrt{\pi}$ by Wallis formula, thus $\lim\limits_{x\ \uparrow\ 1}f(x)=\sqrt{\pi}$ as well.
[For the "previous version" we get $\lim\limits_{x\to\pi/2}f(x)\cos x=1$ the same way.]

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1Thanks a lot again @metamorphy ! I think that answers the question. Just to make sure about notation: $(2n)!! := 2 * 4 * 6 * 8 * ... * 2n$ and $(2n-1)!!:= 1 * 3 * 5 * 7 * ... * (2n-1)$ – user3154270 Jun 13 '19 at 16:56
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Some comments on the proof: How is the power series for $\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x}}$ derived? And as I see it, the proof is still valid if the power series of $b(x)$ starts at $n=0$. So we can in fact define $b(x):= \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x}}$ without adding $-1$. – user3154270 Jun 13 '19 at 17:01
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Is there any reference for the proof or does it go back to you? – user3154270 Jun 13 '19 at 17:02
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1The series is just a binomial one, with $(-1)^n\binom{-1/2}{n}=\frac{(2n-1)!!}{(2n)!!}$ easy to verify. As for the reference, I didn't manage to find one. I think it should be hanging out of something like this. (I proved it myself long time ago, to use as a tool for evaluating some continued fractions.) – metamorphy Jun 13 '19 at 17:16
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Thanks again for your solution! Very nice one – user3154270 Jun 13 '19 at 17:23