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We have the integral

$$\int_{0}^{2\pi}{x\over \phi-\cos^2(x)}\mathrm dx=2\pi^2\tag1$$ $\phi$; Golden ratio

What method do we employ to prove $(1)$?

An attempt:

If we use $u=\phi-\cos^2 x$ then $\int_{\phi-1}^{\phi-1}(...)du=0$

Another way, $(1)$ becomes

$${1\over 2\sqrt{\phi}}\int_{0}^{2\pi}\left({x\over \sqrt{\phi}-\cos x}-{x\over \sqrt{\phi}+\cos x} \right)\mathrm dx\tag2$$

We got a hint by using

$z=\tan{x\over 2}$, $dx={2dz\over 1+z^2}$, $\cos x={1-z^2\over 1+z^2}$ and $\sin x={2z\over 1+z^2}$

Let try on

$$\int_{0}^{2\pi}{x\over \sqrt{\phi}+\cos x}\mathrm dx=4\int_{0}^{0}{\tan^{-1} z\over (1+z^2)\sqrt{\phi}+1-z^2}\cdot (1-z^2)\mathrm dz=0?\tag3$$

Doesn't seem to work.

How else can we prove $(1)$?

6 Answers6

13

Here is a route, I leave it to you to fill in the details: $$ \begin{aligned} \int_0^{2\pi}\frac{x}{\phi-\cos^2x}\,dx &=\int_0^\pi\frac{x}{\phi-\cos^2x}\,dx+\int_0^{\pi}\frac{x+\pi}{\phi-\cos^2(x+\pi)}\,dx\\ &=2\int_0^\pi\frac{x}{\phi+\sin^2x-1}\,dx+\int_0^\pi\frac{\pi}{\phi-\cos^2x}\,dx\\ &=2\frac\pi2\int_0^\pi\frac{1}{\phi+\sin^2x-1}\,dx+\int_0^\pi\frac{\pi}{\phi-\cos^2x}\,dx\\ &=2\pi\int_0^\pi\frac{1}{\phi-\cos^2x}\,dx\\ &=4\pi\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac{1}{\phi-\cos^2x}\,dx\\ &=4\pi\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac{1}{\cos^2x}\frac{1}{\phi\tan^2x+\phi-1}\,dx\\ &=4\pi\biggl[\frac{1}{\sqrt{\phi(\phi-1)}}\arctan\Bigl(\sqrt{\frac{\phi}{\phi-1}}\tan x\Bigr)\biggr]_0^{\pi/2}\\ &=4\pi\frac{1}{\sqrt{\phi(\phi-1)}}\frac\pi2\\ &=2\pi^2. \end{aligned} $$

mickep
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8

Since it may be in any case instructive, let me try to give the full residue-method solution.The integration contour $\Gamma$ in the complex plane. Choosing the branch cut of the logarithm along the positive real axis, let us apply the residue theorem to the corresponding keyhole contour $\Gamma$, which, as sketched in the figure, goes around the point $z=z_1=\sqrt{2\phi-3}=-z_2$ from above and below. We obtain: $$ \oint_\Gamma \frac{4z\log z}{z^4-2(2\phi-1)z^2+1}dz = i2\pi\frac{\log z_2}{z_2^2-(2\phi-1)} = -i\pi\log z_1 +\pi^2, $$ where we have used that $z_{2}$ is the only root of the denominator enclosed in the integration contour and we have substituted $\log z_2 = \log(z_1e^{i\pi})=\log z_1+i\pi$.

The integration contour $\Gamma$ can be split into its six pieces: the unit circle $C_1$, two segments above and below the real axis, two half-circles $\gamma^\pm_\varepsilon$ around $z_1$ and a small circle around the origin. As the radius $\varepsilon$ of the small circle and of $\gamma_\varepsilon^\pm$ tends to zero, these pieces yield (care is needed because we are comparing quantities across a branch cut): $$\begin{aligned} \oint_\Gamma \frac{4z\log z}{z^4-2(2\phi-1)z^2+1}dz =&\ \int_0^{2\pi}\frac{t}{\phi-\cos^2t}dt\\ &- \mathrm{PV} \int_0^1 \frac{4x(\log x +i2\pi)}{x^4-2(2\phi-1)x^2+1}dx\\ &-i\pi \frac{\log z_1 + i2\pi}{z_1^2-(2\phi-1)}\\ &+0\\ &+\mathrm{PV} \int_0^1 \frac{4x\log x }{x^4-2(2\phi-1)x^2+1}dx\\ &-i\pi \frac{\log z_1}{z_1^2-(2\phi-1)}\\ =&\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{t}{\phi-\cos^2t}dt -\pi^2\\ &-i8\pi\, \mathrm{PV}\int_0^1\frac{x}{x^4-2(2\phi-1)x^2+1}dx+i\pi\log z_1, \end{aligned} $$ where $\mathrm{PV}$ denotes the Cauchy principal value. By comparison of the real parts, $$ \int_{0}^{2\pi}\frac{t}{\phi-\cos^2t}dt=2\pi^2. $$ Furthermore, by comparison of the imaginary parts, we get the bonus identity $$ \mathrm{PV} \int_{0}^{1}\frac{ x}{x^4-2(2\phi-1)x^2+1}dx=\frac{1}{4}\log z_1=\frac{1}{8}\log(\sqrt{5}-2). $$ Alio modo: let us consider instead the complex function $$ f(z)=\frac{z}{\phi-\cos^2z}=\frac{-4ze^{i2z}}{(e^{i2z}-e^{i2\zeta_1})(e^{i2z}-e^{i2\zeta_3})}, $$ where $\zeta_1=-i\log\sqrt{2\phi-3}=\zeta_2-\pi$ and $\zeta_3=-i\log\sqrt{2\phi+1}=\zeta_4-\pi$. This function has simple poles at $\zeta_1$, $\zeta_2$ in the upper half plane and $\zeta_3$, $\zeta_4$ in the lower half plane, up to integer multiples of $2\pi$. enter image description here Denoting by $\Pi$ the rectangular contour sketched in the figure , with half-circular indents of radius $\varepsilon$ around $\zeta_1$ and $\zeta_1+2\pi$, we have $$ \oint_\Pi f(z) dz=i2\pi \,\text{Res}f(\zeta_2)=i2\pi\lim_{z\to\zeta_2}(z-\zeta_2)f(z)=\pi^2-i\pi\log\sqrt{2\phi-3}. $$ Furthermore, in the limits $M\to\infty$ and $\varepsilon\to0$, from the various pieces of the integration contour we get: $$\begin{aligned} \oint_\Pi f(z) dz =&\ \int_0^{2\pi}\frac{t}{\phi-\cos^2t}dt\\ &\ +\mathrm{PV} \int_0^\infty \frac{2\pi+iy}{\phi-\cosh^2y}idy\\ &\ -0\\ &\ -\mathrm{PV} \int_0^\infty \frac{iy}{\phi-\cosh^2y}idy\\ &\ -i\pi \,\text{Res}f(\zeta_1)\\ &\ -i\pi \,\text{Res}f(\zeta_1+2\pi)\\ =&\ \int_0^{2\pi}\frac{t}{\phi-\cos^2t}dt-\pi^2\\ &\ i2\pi\, \mathrm{PV} \int_0^\infty \frac{dy}{\phi-\cosh^2y}+i\pi\log\sqrt{2\phi-3}. \end{aligned}$$ Again, by comparison: $$ \begin{aligned} \int_0^{2\pi}\frac{t}{\phi-\cos^2t}dt&=2\pi^2\\ \mathrm{PV} \int_0^\infty \frac{dy}{\phi-\cosh^2y}&=\frac{1}{2}\log(2\phi-3). \end{aligned} $$

Brightsun
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  • [+1] I appreciate your development right from the beginning. It what I tried, not at first, where I had forgotten to take the branch cut properly with this nasty second pole on (any) branch cut.. but in a second (aborted) attempt. – Jean Marie Mar 14 '17 at 17:03
  • Well, thanks a lot! Branch cuts are a bit subtle, but also quite useful if properly exploited. – Brightsun Mar 14 '17 at 17:29
  • May I ask you which software do you use to obtain such a gorgeous picture ? – Jean Marie Mar 14 '17 at 19:57
  • The TikZ LaTeX package. – Brightsun Mar 14 '17 at 20:17
  • @ZaidAlyafeai Thanks! I tried adding a link to the figure (which should have been displayed by default from your browser...) – Brightsun Mar 14 '17 at 21:14
  • @ZaidAlyafeai Unfortunately I have the source code on another computer, but this is the site from which I took the template: http://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/78154/how-to-draw-these-closed-contours-diagrams-using-tikz-or-pstricks – Brightsun Mar 14 '17 at 23:14
  • @Brightsun Thanks for this information. – Jean Marie Mar 14 '17 at 23:44
  • Once again : very interesting !!! – Jean Marie Mar 15 '17 at 19:50
  • (+50) well deserved. – Zaid Alyafeai Mar 17 '17 at 09:55
  • @ZaidAlyafeai thanks! :D – Brightsun Mar 18 '17 at 10:55
  • @JeanMarie I appreciated the $\texttt{@Brightsun}$ gorgeous picture and his/her answer too. $\LaTeX$ has a 'native' environment ( it's called $\texttt{picture}$ ) which is very helpful. $\texttt{TikZ}$ provides, indeed, sophisticated techniques beyond the 'simple' $\texttt{picture}$ one. Unfortunately, $\texttt{MathJax}$ doesn't implement it. See this. – Felix Marin Apr 08 '17 at 03:51
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Instead of starting from your integral, I will start from the integral in the solution by @Mickep, i.e,

$$\tag{1}I=4\pi\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac{1}{\phi-\cos^2x}\,dx=\pi\underbrace{\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{1}{\phi-\cos^2x}\,dx}_{J} $$

on which it will be simpler to explain how to compute an integral using residue calculus than on the original integral. I will not enter into details. For this I refer you to the numerous lecture notes on residue calculus, for example here.

The main idea is to transform this integral into a circuit integral along a closed parametrized arc, which is here, in a natural way, the unit circle $\gamma$, traversed in the direct orientation.

Let $z=e^{ix}$, with $dz=ie^{ix}dx$. Thus, $J$ becomes, using Euler formula $\cos(x)=\frac12(e^{ix}+e^{-ix})$: $$J=\int_{\gamma}\dfrac{-i dz/z}{\Phi-\dfrac{(z+1/z)^2}{4}}$$

Expanding and reducing, we get:

$$\tag{2}J=-i \underbrace{\int_{\gamma}\dfrac{4z dz}{-z^4+2(2\Phi-1)z^2-1}}_{K}$$

The integrand has four poles (roots of the denominator), all of them real:

$$\begin{cases}z_1=\sqrt{2 \Phi -3} \ \ \ \text{and } \ \ \ z_2=-z_1=-\sqrt{2 \Phi -3}\\ z_3=\sqrt{1+2 \Phi} \ \ \ \text{and } \ \ \ z_4=-z_3=-\sqrt{1+2 \Phi}\end{cases}$$

Only $z_1$ and $z_2$ are inside contour $\gamma.$

The residue theorem says that a complex integral $\int_{\gamma}...$ whatever the sufficiently regular closed contour $\gamma$, is equal to the sum of residues at the poles situated inside the contour multiplied by $2i\pi$.

Now, what is the residue of a function of the form $\dfrac{f(z)}{g(z)}$ at a pole $z_0$? It is the number given by the following formula:

$$\dfrac{f(z_0)}{g'(z_0)}.$$ Although this is not the most general definition, this expression covers a large number of cases (see remark below).

Thus, the residue theorem gives:

$$K=2i\pi\left(\dfrac{4z_1 }{-4z_1^3+4(2\Phi-1)z_1}+\dfrac{4z_2}{-4z_2^3+4(2\Phi-1)z_2}\right)$$

$$K=2i\pi\left(\dfrac{1}{-z_1^2+(2\Phi-1)}+\dfrac{1}{-z_2^2+(2\Phi-1)}\right)$$

As $z_1^2=z_2^2=2\Phi-3$, the denominators have a common value, which is $-2$. Thus $K=-2i\pi$. Plugging this value into (2) and then (1) gives the awaited result.

Remark: The definition of residues I have given is only valid for simple poles; if $z_0$ is for example a double root of the denominator, it is understandable that we are in trouble because $g'(z_0)=0$. There exist specific formulas for these cases.

Jean Marie
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    @Mickep At last, I have obtained the good result, starting from an intermediate integral in your solution. In fact, I my previous ''release" I hadn't well paid attention to the contour and the tricky integrand $log(z)...$ – Jean Marie Mar 14 '17 at 13:25
  • (+1) I agree that it is better to get rid of the $x$ before using complex analysis, even though I suspect one could manage without doing so, being very careful with the details. – mickep Mar 14 '17 at 13:44
  • XD got to love the application of the residue theorem to cases where it's arguably harder than just using real techniques. +1 for sure. – Brevan Ellefsen Mar 14 '17 at 14:50
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    @mickep the simplest contour integration approach (which tackles arbirtray powers $n$ of $x$ in a recursive manner) is to integrate $f(z)=\frac{z^{n+1}}{\phi+\cos(z)^2}$ or some variant of it around a rectangle $R={(0,0),(0,2\pi),(i\infty,2\pi),(i\infty,0)}$ – tired Mar 14 '17 at 18:55
  • @tired Thank you for the information. I trust you on that one. :) – mickep Mar 14 '17 at 19:00
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    @mickep the nice thing about that approach is that we can exploit the same symmetry then in your real analysis solution plus we don't need to care about nasty branch cuts ^^ – tired Mar 14 '17 at 19:02
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    @tired Many thanks for your very interesting remark. I will work it for myself. – Jean Marie Mar 14 '17 at 19:54
  • @JeanMarie Perhaps below (2) there is a typo in the definition of $z_{3,4}$ – Brightsun Mar 14 '17 at 20:20
  • @Brightsun Many thanks. Corrected. – Jean Marie Mar 14 '17 at 20:30
3

$\newcommand{\bbx}[1]{\,\bbox[15px,border:1px groove navy]{\displaystyle{#1}}\,} \newcommand{\braces}[1]{\left\lbrace\,{#1}\,\right\rbrace} \newcommand{\bracks}[1]{\left\lbrack\,{#1}\,\right\rbrack} \newcommand{\dd}{\mathrm{d}} \newcommand{\ds}[1]{\displaystyle{#1}} \newcommand{\expo}[1]{\,\mathrm{e}^{#1}\,} \newcommand{\ic}{\mathrm{i}} \newcommand{\mc}[1]{\mathcal{#1}} \newcommand{\mrm}[1]{\mathrm{#1}} \newcommand{\pars}[1]{\left(\,{#1}\,\right)} \newcommand{\partiald}[3][]{\frac{\partial^{#1} #2}{\partial #3^{#1}}} \newcommand{\root}[2][]{\,\sqrt[#1]{\,{#2}\,}\,} \newcommand{\totald}[3][]{\frac{\mathrm{d}^{#1} #2}{\mathrm{d} #3^{#1}}} \newcommand{\verts}[1]{\left\vert\,{#1}\,\right\vert}$

With $\ds{\phi \equiv {1 + \root{5} \over 2} \approx 1.6180}$:

\begin{align} &\bbox[10px,#ffd]{\int_{0}^{2\pi}{x \over \phi - \cos^{2}\pars{x}}\,\dd x} = \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}{x + \pi \over \phi - \cos^{2}\pars{x}}\,\dd x = 2\pi\int_{0}^{\pi}{\dd x \over \phi - \cos^{2}\pars{x}} \\[5mm] = &\ 2\pi\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}{\dd x \over \phi - \sin^{2}\pars{x}} = 4\pi\int_{0}^{\pi/2}{\dd x \over \phi - \sin^{2}\pars{x}} \\[5mm] = &\ 4\pi\int_{0}^{\pi/2}{\sec^{2}\pars{x} \over \phi\sec^{2}\pars{x} - \tan^{2}\pars{x}}\,\dd x = 4\pi\int_{0}^{\pi/2}{\sec^{2}\pars{x} \over \pars{\phi - 1}\tan^{2}\pars{x} + \phi}\,\dd x \\[5mm] = &\ 4\pi\,{1 \over \phi}\,{1 \over \root{1 - 1/\phi}} \int_{0}^{\pi/2}{\root{1 - 1/\phi}\sec^{2}\pars{x} \over \bracks{\root{1 - 1/\phi}\tan\pars{x}}^{2} + 1}\,\dd x \\[5mm] = &\ 4\pi\,{1 \over \root{\phi^{2} - \phi}}\ \underbrace{\int_{0}^{\infty}{\dd x \over x^{2} + 1}} _{\ds{\pi \over 2}}\ =\ {2\pi^{2} \over \root{\phi^{2} - \phi}} = \bbx{2\pi^{2}} \end{align}

because $\ds{\phi^{2} - \phi = \color{red}{1}}$.

Felix Marin
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2

A purely real approach.

Consider the integral $$C(a,b)=\int_0^{\pi}\frac{\mathrm dx}{a+b\cos(x)^2}$$ It has already been shown by other users that your integral is given by $2\pi C(\phi,-1)$.

We commence with the substitution $t=\tan\frac{x}2$: $$C(a,b)=2\int_0^\infty \frac1{a+b\left[\frac{1-t^2}{1+t^2}\right]^2}\frac{\mathrm dt}{1+t^2}$$ $$C(a,b)=2\int_0^\infty\frac{1+t^2}{a(t^2+1)^2+b(t^2-1)^2}\mathrm dt$$ $$C(a,b)=2\int_0^\infty\frac{1+t^2}{(a+b)t^4+2(a-b)t^2+a+b}\mathrm dt$$ $$C(a,b)=\frac2{a+b}\int_0^\infty\frac{1+t^2}{t^4+2gt^2+1}\mathrm dt$$ Where $g=\frac{a-b}{a+b}$. We may split up the integral: $$C(a,b)=\frac2{a+b}\int_0^\infty\frac{\mathrm dt}{t^4+2gt^2+1}+\frac2{a+b}\int_0^\infty\frac{t^2\mathrm dt}{t^4+2gt^2+1}$$ Then we pay attention to $$N_{n}(s)=\int_0^\infty \frac{x^{2n}}{x^4+2sx^2+1}\mathrm dx$$ With the substitution $x=1/u$, we have $$N_n(s)=-\int_\infty^0 \frac{\frac1{u^{2n}}}{\frac1{u^4}+\frac{2s}{u^2}+1}\frac{\mathrm du}{u^2}$$ $$N_n(s)=\int_0^\infty \frac{u^{2-2n}\mathrm du}{u^4+2su^2+1}$$ $$N_n(s)=N_{1-n}(s)$$ So we have $$C(a,b)=\frac4{a+b}\int_0^\infty\frac{\mathrm dt}{t^4+2gt^2+1}$$ For this remaining integral, we recall that $$\begin{align} \frac1{x^4+(2-c^2)x^2+1}&=\frac1{(x^2+cx+1)(x^2-cx+1)}\\ &=\frac1{4c}\frac{2x+c}{x^2+cx+1}-\frac1{4c}\frac{2x-c}{x^2-cx+1}+\frac14\frac1{x^2+cx+1}+\frac14\frac1{x^2-cx+1} \end{align}$$ So we have that $$K(c)=\int_0^\infty \frac{\mathrm dx}{x^4+(2-c^2)x^2+1}$$ becomes $$K(c)=\frac1{4c}\int_0^\infty\frac{2x+c}{x^2+cx+1}\mathrm dx-\frac1{4c}\int_0^\infty\frac{2x-c}{x^2-cx+1}\mathrm dx\\ +\frac14\int_0^\infty \frac{\mathrm dx}{x^2+cx+1}+\frac14\int_0^\infty \frac{\mathrm dx}{x^2-cx+1}$$ The first two integrals are easy, and end up vanishing, so we end up with $$K(c)=\frac14I(1,c,1)+\frac14I(1,-c,1)$$ Where $$I(a,b,c)=\int_0^\infty \frac{\mathrm dx}{ax^2+bx+c}=\frac2{\sqrt{4ac-b^2}}\arctan\frac{2ax+b}{\sqrt{4ac-b^2}}\bigg]_0^\infty\\ =\frac\pi{\sqrt{4ac-b^2}}-\frac2{\sqrt{4ac-b^2}}\arctan\frac{b}{\sqrt{4ac-b^2}}$$ Hence $$K(c)=\frac\pi{2\sqrt{4-c^2}}$$ So we see that $$C(a,b)=\frac4{a+b}K\left(2\sqrt{\frac{b}{a+b}}\right)=\frac\pi{\sqrt{a^2+ab}}$$ And since, by definition, $\phi^2-\phi=1$, we have that $$C(\phi,-1)=\pi$$ Which gives, as desired, $$\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{x\mathrm dx}{\phi-\cos(x)^2}=2\pi^2$$

clathratus
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1

Using the substitution $x=2\pi - t$ and adding resulting integral to the given one we get $$2I=2\pi\int_{0}^{2 \pi} \frac{dx} {\phi-\cos^2x}$$ or $$I=2\pi\int_{0}^{\pi}\frac{dx}{\phi-\cos ^2x}=4\pi\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\frac{dx}{\phi-\cos^2x}$$ Next using $\cos^2x=(1+\cos 2x) /2$ and substitution $t=2x$ we get $$I=4\pi\int_{0}^{\pi}\frac{dt}{2\phi-1-\cos t} $$ Using the formula $$\int_{0}^{\pi}\frac{dx}{a+b\cos x} =\frac{\pi} {\sqrt{a^2-b^2}},a>|b|$$ we can see that $$I=\frac{4\pi^2}{\sqrt{(2\phi-1)^2-1}}=2\pi^2$$