Question: Doest there exist a smooth map $ h:\text{GL}_n(\mathbb{R}) \to \mathbb{R}$, such that $dh_X(V)=\langle (X^{-1})^{T},V\rangle $?
Suppose such an $h$ exist. Then it must hold that $d^2h=0$:
($d$ is the exterior derivative; in more elementary terms, second derivatives must commute.)
Since $$dh=\sum_{ij}(X^{-T})_{ij}dx^{ij},$$ we have $$ d^2h=\sum_{ijks} \frac{\partial\big((X^{-T})_{ij}\big) }{\partial x_{sk}} dx^{sk} \wedge dx^{ij}=\sum_{ijks} \frac{\partial\big((X^{-1})_{ji}\big) }{\partial x_{sk}} dx^{sk} \wedge dx^{ij}$$
which is zero if and only if
$$ \frac{\partial\big((X^{-1})_{ji}\big) }{\partial x_{sk }}=\frac{\partial\big((X^{-1})_{ks}\big) }{\partial x_{ij}}. \tag{1}$$
I checked most of the cases when $n=2$ (then we have a nice formula for the matrix inverse) and the requirement $(1)$ was satisfied.
So, is there such a function $h$ for $n=2$? For general $n$?