I understand that, in 1914, Dehn proved that the trefoil knot is chiral (it doesn't equal its mirror image). However, the paper in which he does so is in German, and I can't find a description of his proof anywhere else. The only proof I know of its chirality is through the Jones polynomial/Kauffman bracket or something stronger, but those were discovered decades later. So how did Dehn do it, with the tools available to him at the time?
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German, so? Usually, those few words between the formulas don't add much. Unfortunately, I can't offer a translation service, because I'm very far from that (chiral? trefoil knot? oh-oh) – Nov 08 '17 at 21:21
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2Not in this case - the paper uses lots of words and not a lot of formulas. – Akiva Weinberger Nov 08 '17 at 22:08
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After more Googling I was able to find this description: "Automorphisms of trefoil knot group used to prove that the two trefoil knots are not the same." I'm not quite sure how looking at automorphisms help with the problem, but I'll think about it... – Akiva Weinberger Nov 08 '17 at 22:16
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@AkivaWeinberger I believe it is that no automorphism carries the peripheral system of the left-handed trefoil to that of the right-handed trefoil. (In case you are interested, there is another pre-Jones way which is looking at the $\omega$-signature; see top of Lickorish p.86 for a mention.) – Kyle Miller Nov 09 '17 at 04:51
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@KyleMiller What is a peripheral system? (Or an $\omega$-signature, for that matter) – Akiva Weinberger Nov 09 '17 at 14:52
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Peripheral systems I address in a comment on the post. I'm not going to try to explain it here (see Lickorish for an explanation) but there is a Hermitian matrix you can form from the Seifert matrix, and the signature for amphicheiral knots is zero, yet the trefoil's is $\pm2$. I'd guess this is from the 1930s/1940s. – Kyle Miller Nov 09 '17 at 16:15
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Sorry, A.G. Tristam introduced the $\omega$-signature in 1969 in Some cobordism invariants for links. Much closer in time to the Jones polynomial than to Dehn's work. – Kyle Miller Nov 09 '17 at 22:52
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Yes; it was by proving that no automorphism of the knot group reversed the orientation of the knot complement. There are, of course, easier ways -- e.g. the fact that the linking of branch curves in 3-colored covering spaces is non-zero. ''Ken Perko – user43408 Jul 09 '22 at 18:19
1 Answers
Here's a translation: Google books or Springer-Verlag. See page 200 for the translators notes or 203 for the beginning of the paper.
A very loose summary: with $K$ a trefoil knot, Dehn embeds a (quotient of a) Cayley graph of $G=\pi_1(S^3-K)$ into $\mathbb{H}^2\times\mathbb{R}$ to determine the group of outer automorphisms of $G$, and the group ends up being isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$. Using a peripheral system (i.e., oriented meridian and longitude loops), he shows the non-trivial outer automorphism reverses the orientation of the ambient space.
The appendix of the translation contains a more streamlined proof for general torus knots, yet still with the same result about automorphism groups; here I'll give a specialization to the trefoil.
One presentation of the trefoil knot group is $\langle x,y\mid x^2=y^3\rangle$ (Hatcher ch.1 has a proof; it follows from the van Kampen theorem by thinking of the trefoil as being on the surface of a torus). The element $x^2$ is certainly in the center, and $G/\langle x^2\rangle$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}*\mathbb{Z}/3\mathbb{Z}$, presented by $\langle\overline{x},\overline{y}\mid\overline{x}^2,\overline{y}^3\rangle$. Since this quotient has no center, the center of $G$ is $Z(G)=\langle x^2\rangle$.
Let $f:G\to G$ be an automorphism. The center is mapped onto itself, so we get an induced map $\overline{f}:G/Z(G)\to G/Z(G)$. We see $\overline{f}(\overline{x})^2=1$ and $\overline{f}(\overline{y})^3=1$. By considering reduced words, there are $\overline{s},\overline{t}\in G/Z(G)$ such that $\overline{f}(\overline{x})=\overline{s}\overline{x}\overline{s}^{-1}$ and $\overline{f}(\overline{y})=\overline{t}\overline{y}^{\pm 1}\overline{t}^{-1}$. (I think reduced words can be substituted for thinking of $G/Z(G)$ acting on its Cayley graph.) Any choice of $\overline{s},\overline{t}$ and exponent for $\overline{y}$ gives an endomorphism for $G/Z(G)$. Suppose $\overline{f}$ is an automorphism. By composing with an inner automorphism, we may assume $\overline{f}(\overline{x})=\overline{u}\overline{x}\overline{u}^{-1}$ and $\overline{f}(\overline{y})=\overline{y}^{\pm 1}$ for some $\overline{u}$. Since it is an automorphism, $\overline{x}$ is generated by these two elements, and by considering words it follows that $\overline{u}=1$. Hence the automorphisms are given by $\overline{f}(\overline{x})=\overline{s}\overline{x}\overline{s}^{-1}$ and $\overline{f}(\overline{y})=\overline{s}\overline{y}^{\pm 1}\overline{s}^{-1}$ for $\overline{s}\in G/Z(G)$.
The center is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}$, so the automorphism group of $Z(G)$ is generated by $x^2\mapsto x^{-2}$. Again, the center is mapped onto itself, so $f(x)^2=x^{2\varepsilon}$, where $\varepsilon=\pm 1$. By the group relation, $x^{2\varepsilon}=f(x)^2=f(y)^3=y^{3\varepsilon}$. By the result about automorphisms of $G/Z(G)$, there are integers $h,k$ and an element $z\in G$ such that $f(x)=zx^{1+2h}z^{-1}$ and $f(y)=zy^{s+3k}z^{-1}$ where $s=\pm 1$. Since $x$ and $y$ have infinite order, it follows that $\varepsilon=1+2h$ and $\varepsilon=s+3k$, so $f(x)=zx^{\varepsilon}z^{-1}$ and $f(y)=zy^{\varepsilon}z^{-1}$.
Therefore, the group of outer automorphisms is generated by an $f:G\to G$ defined by $f(x)=x^{-1}$ and $f(y)=y^{-1}$.
Consider an orientation-preserving homeomorphism $F:S^3\to S^3$ that carries $K$ to $\overline{K}$ (the reflection of $K$), and let $F':S^3\to S^3$ be a reflection, so $F'\circ F:S^3\to S^3$ carries $K$ to itself. The composition carries a longitude to a longitude, but reverses the orientation of a meridian. It also induces an automorphism $f:G\to G$. Compose $f$ with an inner automorphism so that $z=1$ in the above notation.
A peripheral system for $K$ is given by $\lambda=x^2$ for a longitude and $\mu=y^{-1}x$ for a meridian. Then, $f(\lambda)=x^{\pm 2}$, and since we asserted $f$ sends a longitude to a longitude of the same orientation, $f(\lambda)=\lambda$. Thus, $f(y)=y$ so $f(\mu)=\mu$, contradicting the fact that $f$ needs to reverse the orientation of $\mu$.
In Lickorish's book, exercise 11.10 is to reproduce Dehn's argument, however Lickorish does not seem to cite Dehn when he describes the idea of having the fundamental group act on hyperbolic space, and he instead cites Trotter for a result about certain pretzel knots not being equivalent to their reverses.

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Why must $\overline u$ be $1$? Wouldn't $\overline u=\overline y$ also make an automorphism? – Akiva Weinberger Nov 09 '17 at 12:45
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Oh, I see. We can compose that with another inner automorphism (conjugation by $\overline y$) to make $\overline u=1$. – Akiva Weinberger Nov 09 '17 at 13:13
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Can you remind me which one is a longitude and which one is a meridian? – Akiva Weinberger Nov 09 '17 at 13:42
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1Take a thin solid torus $N(K)$ surrounding the knot. The fundamental group of $N(K)-K)$ included into the full fundamental group is the peripheral subgroup. A meridian is a loop that bounds a disk in the solid torus, and a longitude is a loop that is isotopic to the knot in $N(K)$ and doesn't intersect the knot. Together, these oriented loops are the peripheral system, and they generate the peripheral subgroup. They also determine an orientation on $N(K)$. – Kyle Miller Nov 09 '17 at 16:10
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At the end, we can assume it carries the longitude to a longitude of the same orientation, because the trefoil is invertible (rotate the trefoil by 180 degrees across an axis in the plane of the usual diagram). Right? So we can control the orientation of the longitude at the end. – Akiva Weinberger Nov 09 '17 at 19:59
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Whereas the meridian, in $F$ (before the flip), still needs to have the same linking number with the trefoil. So in $F′\circ F$ (after the flip) it has opposite linking number around the trefoil, so its orientation is the reverse of what it was at the start. – Akiva Weinberger Nov 09 '17 at 20:45
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@AkivaWeinberger I meant for $F$ to respect the orientation of the knot, but your modification of the argument (explicitly control the orientation of the longitude) is probably better. Yes to opposite linking number; that's how I was thinking about it. – Kyle Miller Nov 09 '17 at 22:40
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Wait. Don't we have to choose the longitude to have linking number 0 with the knot, to avoid ambiguity? $x^2=y^3$ seems to have linking number 6. – Akiva Weinberger Nov 10 '17 at 00:17
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1Oh, I see. $\lambda:=x^2$ is still a longitude, and we already know $f(x)=x^{\pm1}$ (up to conjugation, which we can ignore by moving the basepoint around), so $f(\lambda)=f(x^2)=f(x)^2=x^{\pm2}$. – Akiva Weinberger Nov 10 '17 at 03:55
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1And I guess the main point about the orientation of the longitude, which I didn't realize before, is that if the trefoil and the longitude are oriented similarly to each other at the start, they're going to stay oriented similarly to each other at the end as long as the longitude never leaves the periphery. So it's got to be $f(\lambda)=x^2$. (And then an alternate way to finish this proof is to say that $x^2$ has linking number 6 with the trefoil, so $f(\lambda)$ should have opposite linking number, -6, but it doesn't, so contradiction.) – Akiva Weinberger Nov 10 '17 at 04:01
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You might find this interesting: https://arxiv.org/abs/0707.3895 – Akiva Weinberger Nov 24 '18 at 22:18
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