According to wikipedia: The gamma function obeys the equation
$\Gamma(z+1)=z\Gamma(z)$.
Taking the derivative with respect to $z$ gives:
$\Gamma'(z+1)=z\Gamma'(z)+\Gamma(z)$
Dividing by $\Gamma(z+1)$ or the equivalent $z\Gamma(z)$ gives:
$\frac{\Gamma'(z+1)}{\Gamma(z+1)}=\frac{\Gamma'(z)}{\Gamma(z)}+\frac{1}{z}$
or:
$\psi(z+1)=\psi(z)+\frac{1}{z}$
Since the harmonic numbers are defined as
$H_n=\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{k}\tag{1}$
the digamma function is related to it by:
$\psi(n)=H_{n-1}-\gamma$
where $H_n$ is the nth harmonic number, and $\gamma$ is the Euler–Mascheroni constant.
This doesn't make sense to me. The two values subtracted appear to be equal:
How does $$\psi(z+1)=\psi(z)+\frac{1}{z}\tag{2}$$ differ from $\sum_1^n \frac{1}{z}=H_n$
If the sum in (2) doesn't terminate at 1, the definition of the sum is undefined for gamma at negative integer values. If wikipedia is saying non integer values of $\Psi$ of a finite sum i.e. $\frac{1}{1.5}+\frac{1}{2.5}+\frac{1}{3.5}\dots$ differ from $H_n$ by $\gamma$ I'm equally doubtful as $\gamma$ is only equal to infinite sums and I don't see how this value could equal the infinite difference between the integral and sum $\frac{1}{n}$. What am I not understanding. Please help.
Edit: as noted in the comments, could someone explain/link/prove why $\frac{\Gamma'(0)}{\Gamma(0)}=\gamma$