The subtle thing is the exact wording of the proposition.
If you want to prove:
$P(n) = $ $n$ can be expressed as a distinct sum of powers of $2$.
Initial case: $n = 1$ $P(1)$ is provable.
Induction step: $P(k) \implies P(k+1)$
then this is impossible. $P(k) \not \implies P(k+1)$ and there is simply no way to show it does.
But if instead you try to prove.
$Q(n) = $ of all $j; 0 < j < 2^n$, $j $ can be written as a distinct product of powers of $2$
then $Q(k) \implies Q(k+1)$ is pretty easy to prove.
(if $0 < j \le 2^{n+1}$ then either $j = m$ or $j = m + 2^n$ where $0 < m < 2^n$ so $m$ can be distinctly written as $\sum 2^i$. As $m < 2^n$ none of its powers of $2$ are to the $n$ power. So $m + 2^n = 2^n + \sum 2^i $ is a sum with distinct powers of $2$. So $j$, whethe $j = m$ or $j = m + 2^n$ can be written as a sum of distinct powers.)
...
Another way to view this, albeit, maybe not as rigorous. Is that induction need not be a direct $P(n) \implies P(n+1)$ progression. And $P(n) \implies P(f(n))$ where $\cup_{i \in \mathbb N} F_i= \mathbb N$ where $F_0 = \{1\text{ or } 0\}$ and $F_{i+1} = \{f(a)|a \in \cup_{k \le i}F_i\}$, qualifies as induction as well.
Here $f(n) = n + 2^k$ where $k$ is the smallest power where $2^k > n$.
(although the bit $\cup_{i \in \mathbb N} F_i= \mathbb N$ most likely will boil down to a $Q(n) \implies Q(n+1)$. e.g. How do we know $\{0,1\}, \{0,1, 2, 3\},\{0, 1, 2, 3,4,5,6,7\} ....$ will span $\mathbb N$? Probably by induction.)
I'm leaving this thread forever; it's making me doubt my sanity and at my age that's a very bad thing.
– Rick Decker Jul 30 '12 at 18:42