From my earlier question here and the interesting solutions posted, we find interesting equivalents converting binomial coefficients with fractions to those without, e.g. $$\binom {m-\frac 12}m=\frac 1{2^{2m}}\binom {2m}m$$ and $$\binom {n+\frac 12}n=\frac {n+1}{2^{2n+1}}\binom {2n+2}{n+1}$$
Are there any "rules of thumb" for quickly converting a binomial coefficient with fractions into a binomial coefficient without fractions, adjusted with a coefficient as necessary?
Further edit:
The purpose of this question is not to derive the above (that has already been done elsewhere) but to ask if there is a handy rule of thumb for converting one form to another (with basis provided, of course).
Another example might be $$\binom {m-\frac 34}m$$ Perhaps one could consider a fractional binomial coefficient of the form $$\binom {m-\frac pq}m$$ and see if that can be converted into a binomial coefficient of integer parameters.