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If $c$ is a common divisor of $a$ and $b$ then $c$ divides the greatest common divisor of $a$ and $b$. What can we use to prove this?

Parcly Taxel
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5 Answers5

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The general definition of a gcd $G$ is that it is a common divisor that is divisibly greatest, i.e. if $d$ is any common divisor then $\,d\mid G,\,$ so $\, d\le G,\,$ thus $G$ is a greatest common divisor. Combining both directions we obtain the following handy bidirectional form of the general definition of a gcd

$$g\,\text{ is a gcd of }\,a,b\,\text{ in }R\ \ \text{ if }\ \ \bbox[5px,border:2px solid #c40]{d\mid a,b\iff d\mid g\,}\ \text{ holds for all}\ \ d\in R\qquad\qquad\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ $$

Indeed putting $\,d=g\,$ in $(\Leftarrow)$ yields $\,g\mid a,b,\,$ so $\,g\,$ is a common divisor of $\,a,b,\,$ and necessarily divisibly greatest since direction $(\Rightarrow)$ shows every common divisor $\,d\,$ divides $\,g.$

gcds are unique only up to unit multiples, but we can normalize them in some domains, e.g. choosing them $\ge 0\,$ in $\,\Bbb Z,\,$ and monic for polynomials over a field - see here.

Below is a proof of the "divisibly greatest" form of the gcd in $\Bbb Z,\,$ via Bezout.

Theorem $\ \ \ \ d\mid a,b\iff d\mid (a,b)\ \ \ $ [GCD Universal Property]

${\bf Proof}\ \ (\Rightarrow)\ \ \ d\mid a,b\,\Rightarrow\, d\mid (a,b) = i\,a+j\,b,\, $ some $\, i,j\in\Bbb Z,\,$ by Bezout.

$(\Leftarrow)\ \ \ \ d\mid (a,b)\mid a,b\,\Rightarrow\, d\mid a,b\ $ by transitivity of $ $ "divides". $\ \bf\small QED$

Note that the proof shows that a linear common divisor is always greatest, i.e. any common divisor $ \:d\:$ of $ \:a,b\:$ that is an integral linear combination of them $ \:d = i\,a + j\,b\:$ is necessarily the greatest common divisor, since, as above, every common divisor $ \:c\:$ divides $ \:d,\:$ hence $ \:c\le d.\,$ If we inline the linked Bezout proof here we obtain the common direct proof by Euclidean descent (induction).

Clearly the above proof immediately extends to any number of gcd arguments, since the linked Bezout proof is $n$-ary, and the $n$-ary converse is clear by $\,d\mid (a_1,\ldots,a_n)\mid a_1,\ldots,a_n,\,$ hence

Theorem$\:\!_{\color{#c00}n}$ $\, \ d\mid a_1,\cdots, a_{\color{#c00}n}\iff d\mid (a_1,\cdots, a_{\color{#c00}n})\ \ \ $ [$\color{#c00}n$-ary GCD Universal Property]

Remark $\ $ Dually we have the universal property of LCM

Lemma $\ \ \ a,b\mid m\iff [a,b]\mid m\ \ \ $ [LCM Universal Property]

Beware $ $ In other UFD's (e.g. $\,\Bbb Z[x]\,$ and $\,\Bbb Q[x,y]$) there generally is not a linear representation (Bezout equation) for gcds but we can instead use prime factorizations to prove the above properties (then these properties boil down to the universal propery of min & max on the exponents of primes, e.g. see here).


Or we can prove the GCD Universal Property directly by induction on $\,\color{#90f}{{\rm size} := a\!+\!b}.\,$ It's clearly true if $\,a\!=\!0\,$ or $\,b\!=\!0,\,$ or if $\,a\! =\! b\!:\ c\mid a,a\!\iff\! c\mid (a,a)=a.\,$ Else $\,a\!\neq\! b\!\neq\!0.\,$ By symmetry, wlog $\,a>b.\,$ so $\, c\mid a,b\!\iff\! \color{#0a0}{c\mid a\!-\!b,b}\!\iff\! c\mid(a\!-\!b,b)=(a,b)\,$ since $\,\color{#0a0}{\rm green}\,$ instance has smaller $\,\color{#90f}{{\rm size}} = (a\!-\!b)+b = a < \color{#90f}{a+b},\,$ so $\rm\color{}{induction}\,$ applies.

Bill Dubuque
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  • What is your definition for the greatest common divisor? – quid Dec 18 '14 at 18:35
  • @quid It works for both common gcd definitions, i.e. "greatest" means either wrt (absolute) value, or wrt divisibility, as in the universal definition $\ a\mid b,c\iff a\mid (b,c)\ \ $ – Bill Dubuque Dec 18 '14 at 18:51
  • Part of your answer is in fact wrong for the former (and for the former with parenthesis and the latter there is not really such a thing as the greatest common divisor, at least not if one want it to be an element). – quid Dec 18 '14 at 18:54
  • @quid I see nothing wrong. The former definition is intrinsic to Euclidean domains, and the latter to gcd domains. And the abuse of notation (uniqueness of the gcd up to unit factors) is ubiquitous. But this is very far from the question at hand. – Bill Dubuque Dec 18 '14 at 18:56
  • It is not ubiquitous; especially, at the elementary level it is quite common to insist that the gcd is positive (so that it is unique), and your initial comment is somewhat vague regrading this, too. With this definition your answer is wrong. You might want to be more explicit about your abuses of notation. – quid Dec 18 '14 at 19:02
  • @quid Not true. The proof works fine for that case, and the same idea works generally. If you still think something is wrong then please say precisely what that is and I will be happy to elaborate. – Bill Dubuque Dec 18 '14 at 19:05
  • It is false that each common divisor of the form $ja +kb$ is the gcd, as it could also be its negative. – quid Dec 18 '14 at 19:07
  • @quid But usually the elementary context treats positive integers, not $,\Bbb Z.,$ But even if it was $,\Bbb Z,,$ I cannot imagine anyone that would have a problem making the trivial extension to the above Hint. – Bill Dubuque Dec 18 '14 at 19:11
  • It is certainly up to you to consider the imprecisions in your answers as irrelevant or perhaps even pedagogic principles. I only thought you were actively searching my feedback on this post of yours, so I obliged. – quid Dec 18 '14 at 19:16
  • @quid It is almost universally true that my hints ignore inessential details in order to help focus on the essence of the matter. If you wish to provide an answer that emphasizes the above technicalities then please do so - I'll be happy to upvote it since I agree it is a point that any number theory student needs to understand (at some point). I have no idea what you mean about feedback. Today I have been going through all the "gcd" posts since I've been away the past few months, not anyone's feedback, e.g, see my recent activity. – Bill Dubuque Dec 18 '14 at 19:24
  • You seemed to try to draw my attention to this post via a comment linking to it placed at a peculiar place so that that I got notified. But perhaps this was an over-interpretation. – quid Dec 18 '14 at 19:33
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    @quid Ah, I see now. That comment was explicitly addressed to the OP, even though it was in the comments of your answer. Today has been so busy that now I don't recall why I placed the comment at that spot (maybe because I thought some readers of your answer might find the links helpful). Apologies for any confusion it may have caused. – Bill Dubuque Dec 18 '14 at 19:40
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Use unique prime factorization: say $m=\displaystyle\prod_{i}{p_i}^{\alpha_i}$ and $n=\displaystyle\prod_i{p_i}^{\beta_i}$, then $\gcd(m,n)$ will contain the exponents $\min(\alpha_i,\beta_i)$.

Meanwhile, if $d$ has exponents $\delta_i$, then $d|m$ means exactly that each $\delta_i \le \alpha_i$. So, this is all a reformulation of the ($\delta_i\le\alpha_i$ and $\delta_i\le\beta_i$ then $\delta_i\le\min(\alpha_i,\beta_i)$) setting.

Berci
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First of all, it could be a definition. Otherwise, you may use the Euclidean algorithm and some elementary properties of division, or simply the unique prime factorisation of natural numbers.

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This can be shown based on what we are given by showing $a$ and $b$ in terms of a product of $c$. If $c$ is a common divisor of $a$ and $b$, that means a and b are each the product of at least one $c$ and another natural number: $a = c^np$ and $b=c^nq$, with $a,b,c,n,p,q \in \mathbb N$. There are then two possibilities:

  1. Either $c$, or a power of $c$ $c^n$, is the GCD of $a$ and $b$. Trivially, $c$ divides any $c^n$ where $n>0$.
  2. Neither $c$ nor any $c^n$ is the GCD of $a$ and $b$; in that case, $p$ and $q$ have their own GCD $m > 1$, and the GCD of $a$ and $b$ is $c^nm$; again, by inspection, we see that $c$ divides any $c^nm$ to produce $c^{n-1}m$.
KeithS
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(=>)

Assume c|a and c|b WTS there exists a k in Z s.t ck=gcd(a,b)

Then there exists q, p in Z s.t cq=a, cp=b

Then gcd(a,b)=gcd(cq,cp)=c*gcd(q,p)

Take k as gcd(q,p) then we’ve done.

(<=)

Assume c|gcd(a,b) WTS there exists q,p in Z s.t cq=a, cp=b

Since c|gcd(a,b) then there exists k in Z s.t ck=gcd(a,b)

By Bezout’s identity,

there exists u, v in Z s.t gcd(a,b)=au+bv gcd(a,b)=au+bv=ck k=a/c *u + b/c * v

Suppose c does not divide a, but c divides b

This leads to a contradiction that k is not in Z

The same contradiction holds when c divides a but does not divide b

So we must have both c divides a and c divides b as required.

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    As it’s currently written, your answer is unclear. Please [edit] to add additional details that will help others understand how this addresses the question asked. You can find more information on how to write good answers in the help center. – Community May 02 '23 at 23:56
  • The common proof via Bezout is already in this answer. If you have questions about that then please inquire in comments. – Bill Dubuque May 03 '23 at 00:09
  • Thank you very much for bringing that to my attention. I am new to learning number theory and would greatly appreciate any feedback you may have on the proof I have written. – stevewu May 03 '23 at 00:24