Possible Duplicate:
Why $g(x^{p})=(g(x))^{p}$ in the reduction mod $p$?
Let $h(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$ and $p$ be a prime. We know that for any integer $\alpha$ we have that $\alpha^p \equiv \alpha \pmod{p}$. How can we use this to show that $h(x^p) \equiv h(x)^p \pmod{p}$? It seems to me that we have to reduce the indeterminate $x$ modulo $p,$ which does not make sense.