I know that we can show $A_n \trianglelefteq S_n$ by observing that:
- $A_n$ is the set of all permutations in $S_n$ which are a product of an even number of transpositions. Hence any element is the product of an even number of even-length cycles.
- Conjugation by an element of $S_n$ preserves cycle structure. (i.e. conjugation by an element of $S_n$ is just "relabeling" the elements).
Then we have that for all $a \in A_n$, for all $s \in S_n$, conjugating lands you back in $A_n$, i.e. $sas^{-1} \in A_n$.
I know that I can use a similar argument to prove, for instance, $\mathbb{Z}_4 \trianglelefteq S_4$ by observing that $\mathbb{Z}_4$ is the set of all permutations in $S_4$ which are length-4 cycles. [i.e. $1 \simeq (1234), 2 \simeq (1324)$, ...].
I think I can use this type of reasoning to prove $V_4 \trianglelefteq S_4$, (where $V_4$ is the Klein 4-group) by characterizing $V_4$ as the set of permutations in $S_4$ that are a product of $0$ or $2$ disjoint transpositions. Cycle type and disjointness are both preserved by relabeling the elements. (Is this correct?)
My question is: what is special about $S_4$ in the above? Aren't any permutations "relabelings"? They may be a certain type of relabeling, but it seems that the above argument would still work. Does it?
For example, can I show that $V_4 \trianglelefteq A_4$ by a similar argument to the above? In general, any group is a group of permutations. So if a subgroup of some group $G$ is exactly a certain set of cycle types, is it automatically normal?