Let $R$ be a (noncommutative) ring and $a \in R$ such that $a(1-a)$ is nilpotent. Why is $1+a(t-1)$ a unit in $R[t,t^{-1}]$? Probably one just has to write down an inverse element, but I could not find it. Perhaps there is a trick related to the geometric series which motivates the choice of the inverse element, which can be actually made into a formal proof because the series is finite since $a(1-a)$ is nilpotent?
Here is a proof that the two-sided ideal generated by $1+a(t-1)$ is $R[t,t^{-1}]$ (which already finishes the proof when $R$ is commutative): Let $A$ be the quotient, we have to show $A=0$. Now, $A$ contains elements $a,t$ such that $a(1-a)$ is nilpotent, $t$ is invertible and $(1-a) + ta = 0$. If we multiply this equation by $a^u (1-a)^v$, we see that $a^{u+1}(1-a)^v=0 \Rightarrow a^u (1-a)^v = 0$ as well as $a^u (1-a)^{v+1} = 0 \Rightarrow a^u (1-a)^v = 0$ for all $u,v \geq 0$. Since $a(1-a)$ is nilpotent, we get by induction that $a$ and $1-a$ are nilpotent. But $a$ nilpotent implies that $1-a$ is a unit, so it can only be nilpotent when $A=0$.
As mt_ mentions below, the general case may be reduced to the commutative case by working with the commutative subring $\mathbb{Z}[a] \subseteq R$. Anyway, I would like to know if there is a short proof which just writes down the inverse.
EDIT: I would also like to know why the converse is true: When $1+a(t-1)$ is a unit, why is $a(1-a)$ nilpotent? Rosenberg claims this in his book without proof (he only says "by the same reasoning as in ...", but this doesn't work the same!). Here, we cannot assume that $R$ is commutative, since the inverse may contain coefficients which do not lie in $\mathbb{Z}[a]$.
Background: This is needed in the proof of the Bass-Heller-Swan Theorem.