Let $C$ be a subring of integral domains $A,B$ and let $C',A',B'$ denote their field of fractions respectively.
Can we always embed $A\otimes_CB$ in $A'\otimes_{C'}B'$ by $a\otimes b\mapsto a/1\otimes b/1$ as a ring?
Let $C$ be a subring of integral domains $A,B$ and let $C',A',B'$ denote their field of fractions respectively.
Can we always embed $A\otimes_CB$ in $A'\otimes_{C'}B'$ by $a\otimes b\mapsto a/1\otimes b/1$ as a ring?
The answer is negative.
Let $C=K[X^2,X^3]$, and $A=B=K[X]$. Then $A'\otimes_{C'}B'=K(X)\otimes_{K(X)}K(X)=K(X)$ is a field, while $A\otimes_CB$ is not an integral domain. In order to show the last claim notice that $$[X\otimes(X+1)-1\otimes X(X+1)][X\otimes(X+1)+1\otimes X(X+1)]=0$$ and use this answer where I've proved that the factors are both non-zero. (Well, I've proved that the first one is non-zero, but the same argument applies to the second, too.)