The notion of Fourier transform was always a little bit mysterious to me and recently I was introduced to functional analysis. I am a beginner in this field but still I am almost seeing that the Fourier transform can be viewed as a change of basis in a space of functions. I read the following article here which tries to build an intuition:
https://sites.google.com/site/butwhymath/fourier-analysis/the-fourier-transform
Now, I can see that the Fourier and Inverse Fourier tranforms are projecting and projecting back a function $f(x)$ onto and from the basis of complex exponentials, $e^{i2\pi sx}$, respectively: $$ F(s) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)e^{-i2\pi sx}dx$$
$$ f(x) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}F(s)e^{i2\pi sx}ds$$
Here are my questions about this view to make it more clear:
1)If I understand correctly, this operation is akin to regular linear algebra change of basis operations $a=Mb$ and $b=M^{-1}a$. Roughly, in this case $M$ is a matrix of uncountable many rows and columns where each row is $e^{-i2\pi sx}$, a function of $x$, and similarly $M^{-1}$ has rows as $e^{i2\pi sx}$, functions of $s$. Is this interpretation correct?
2)I don't have the exact rigour for this but intuitively think, if 1) is a correct interpretation then we should obtain from the "infinite dimensional" matrix multiplication $MM^{-1}$ something which resembles an infinite dimensional identity matrix. To test that, I built the inner product where $s$ is held fixed and equal in both terms from two objects $M$ and $M^{-1}$, which should correspond to a "diagonal" element of $MM^{-1}$: $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{i2\pi sx}e^{-i2\pi sx}dx = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{0}dx=\infty$. So this is not $1$ as expected from an identity matrix. What is the reason of that?