I'm working through an elementary number theory course right now and I think I've come up with a proof here but wanted some feedback on my logic.
Question: If the sum of the digits in base 10 is divisible by 9, then the number itself is divisible by 9.
Proof: Suppose that $9|d_1+d_2+...+d_n$ then $d_1+d_2+...+d_n=0\mod9$
Now consider $d_1(10^{n-1})+d_2(10^{n-2})+...+d_{(n-1)}(10^1)+d_n(10^0)$ Each power of $10$ is equivalent to $1\mod9$
therefor
$d_1(10^{n-1})+d_2(10^{n-2})+...+d_{(n-1)}(10^1)+d_n(10^0)=(1\mod9)(d_1+d_2+...d_n)$
$9|(d_1+d_2+...d_n)$ by our assumption, thus $9|(1\mod9)(d_1+d_2+...d_n)$
Thus we have shown that if 9 divides the sum of the digits in base 10, 9 divides the number itself.
The only question I really have is whether I'm jumping the gun on my assumption concerning the powers of 10 being $1\mod 9$. I think this is fair game here but not 100% confident. Thanks.