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How can I prove that if $G$ is an Abelian group with elements $a$ and $b$ with orders $m$ and $n$, respectively, then $G$ contains an element whose order is the least common multiple of $m$ and $n$?

It's an exercise from Hungerford's book, but it's not homework. I could not solve it when I take the course on groups and I think it should be easy. There is a hint that says to first prove when $m$ and $n$ are coprimes. I did this part. But I have no idea how to solve the general case.

Thanks.

Shaun
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6 Answers6

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Let $n = \prod_i p_i^{n_i}$ and $m = \prod_i p_i^{m_i}$, where the $p_i$s are the same. Thus $\mathrm{lcm}(n,m) = \prod_i p_i^{\max(n_i,m_i)}$. Let $N = \{ i : n_i \geq m_i \}$ and $M = \{ i : n_i < m_i \}$. Define $n' = \prod_{i \in N} p_i^{n_i}$ and $m' = \prod_{i \in M} p_i^{m_i}$. Now $a' = a^{n/n'}$ is of order $n'$, and $b' = b^{m/m'}$ is of order $m'$. Since $n',m'$ are coprime, we know that there is an element of order $n'm' = \mathrm{lcm}(n,m)$.


You can also prove it using the structure theorem for abelian groups, but that's an overkill.

Yuval Filmus
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  • Thanks Yuval. That's a nice proof. But how would you do this using the structure theorem? Here the abelian group isn't necessarily finitely generated. So would you pick a finitely generated subgroup containing a and b? – Álvaro Garcia Nov 17 '10 at 13:59
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    Indeed, you can take the subgroup generated by $a,b$, which is going to contain the element you're looking for anyhow. – Yuval Filmus Nov 17 '10 at 14:55
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    Instead of "we know that there is an element of order $n'm'= \mathrm{lcm}(n,m)$" I'd say "the order of $a'b'$ is $n'm'= \mathrm{lcm}(n,m)$". – user26857 Jan 06 '15 at 10:12
  • $a'b'$ have order $m'n'$? Certainly $(a'b')^{m'n'} = e$, but I'm struggling to prove that. – AnalyticHarmony Apr 20 '18 at 17:40
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    @AnalyticHarmony Use $(a'b')^t=1$ and $(a')^t=(b')^{-t}$. Then take $m'$-th powers, then $1=(a')^{tm'}=(b')^{-tm'}$. We have $n'|tm'$, giving $n'|t$. Similarly, we have $m'|tn'$ giving $m'|t$. Therefore, $m'n'|t$. – Sungjin Kim Nov 04 '18 at 06:36
  • I have this same problem but instead of having $G$ abelian as hypothesis, I just have $a,b\in G/ab=ba$. How would you face this problem? I ask because at your last sentence you use (if I interpret it right) that if two elements commute and they orders are coprime then the order of the product is the product of the orders. How could I know that $a'$ and $b'$ commute? – xtreyreader Nov 13 '20 at 21:31
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Below is a simple inductive proof excerpted from my post in a prior thread.

Lemma $\ $ A finite abelian group $\rm\,G\,$ has lcm-closed order set, i.e. with $\rm\, o(X) := $ order of $\rm\: X$

$$\rm X,Y \in G\ \ \Rightarrow\ \ \exists\ Z \in G\!:\ o(Z) = lcm(o(X),o(Y))\qquad\ \ \ \ \ $$

Proof $\ \ $ We induct on $\rm\, o(X)\, o(Y).\, $ If it's $\,1\,$ let $\rm\:Z = 1.\:$ Else split off $\rm\,p's$ in $\rm\,o(X),\,o(Y),\,$ i.e.

write $\rm\ \ o(X)\, =\, AP,\: \ \ o(Y) = B\bar P,\, $ prime $\rm\: p\nmid A,B,\, $ wlog $\rm\,p\,$ $\rm\color{#0a0}{highest}$ in $\,\rm P\,$ so $\,\rm\color{#0a0}{\bar P\!\mid P}\! =\! p^{\large k} > 1 $

Then $\rm\: o(X^{\large P}) = A,\ \ o(Y^{\large \bar P}) = B.\ $ By induction $\rm\, \exists\, Z\!:\ o(Z) = lcm(A,B)$

so $\rm\,\ \ o(X^{\large A}\,\!Z) =\, P\, lcm(A,B) = lcm(AP,B\bar P) = lcm(o(X),o(Y))\,\ $ by here.

Note $ $ This is an element-wise form of what's known as "Herstein's hardest problem": $2.5.11$, p. $41$ in the first edition of Herstein's popular textbook Topics in Algebra. In the 2nd edition Herstein added the following note (problem $2.5.26$, p. $48$)

Don't be discouraged if you don't get this problem with what you know of group theory up to this stage. I don't know anybody, including myself, who has done it subject to the restriction of using material developed so far in the text. But it is fun to try. I've had more correspondence about this problem than about any other point in the whole book."

Bill Dubuque
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  • @Bill: I believe the (in)famous problem was about subgroups, not elements; that is, if $G$ is abelian and $H$ and $K$ are finite subgroups, then $G$ has a subgroup of order $\mathrm{lcm}(|H|,|K|)$. In my Spanish translation of the first edition, this is problem 2.5.11. – Arturo Magidin Nov 16 '10 at 22:39
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    @Arturo: Indeed, but essentially the same proof works for the subgroup case. – Bill Dubuque Nov 16 '10 at 23:11
  • @Bill: if you know that if $X$ has order $ab$ and $\gcd(a,b)=1$, then $X^a$ has order $b$; that would require at least a lemma or two with the material known up to that point... But in any case, your text does not make clear what "Herstein's hardest problem" was, just that it is something of which this is the "element-wise form" – Arturo Magidin Nov 17 '10 at 01:25
  • @Arturo: No, it's trivial and gcd(a,b)=1 isn't needed: if o(X) = ab then o(X^a) = b (it can't be c < b else X^(ac) = 1 for ac < ab, contra to o(X) = ab). The above proof is for the OP, not for Herstein's exercise (I don't recall the constraints imposed by order of presentation of material in Herstein's textbook). – Bill Dubuque Nov 17 '10 at 02:24
  • @Bill: Sorry! I was commenting on the subgroup version, sorry I did not make that clear; should have used "H" instead of "X"; my apologies about the confusion. I guess I think you just may want to mention in the body what Herstein's problem is. – Arturo Magidin Nov 17 '10 at 02:27
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    Thanks Bill. I think that's a very elegant proof and probably was the one Hungerford had in mind when gave that hint. Also I wasn't aware of the repercussion of the original problem involving subgroups in the first edition of Hernstein's book. – Álvaro Garcia Nov 17 '10 at 14:01
  • Let's say $o(X) = AP = 9 = 13^2$. $o(Y) = BP' = 4 = 12^2$. In this case, $P = 3^2$ and $P' = 2^2$. However, then $P'|P$ is clearly false. What am I missing here? :-) – dharmatech Jul 31 '19 at 06:01
  • Is it incorrect to assume that hypothetically, $o(X) = AP = 9 = 13^2$ and $o(Y) = BP' = 4 = 12^2$? Because with $o(X) = 9$ and $o(Y) = 4$, it isn't clear to me how things can be arranged such that $P' | P$. – dharmatech Jul 31 '19 at 16:02
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    @dharmatech I misread your comment. We are pulling out all factors of the same prime $p$ from both (not different primes). So in your example for $,p=3,$ it should be $P = 3^{\large 2},\ \bar P = 3^{\large 0} = 1\ \ $ – Bill Dubuque Jul 31 '19 at 16:24
  • Ah, thank you for that reminder and example. I've been trying a few other examples. $o(X) = AP = 9 = 13^2$ and $o(Y) = BP' = 27 = 33^2$ doesn't work since $p\nmid B$, i.e. $3\nmid 3$ is false. So I have to switch them around: $o(X) = AP = 27 = 13^3$ and $o(Y) = BP' = 9 = 13^2$ and this seems to check out OK. – dharmatech Jul 31 '19 at 23:52
  • Is this approach of "splitting off primes" of two numbers in this way a standard or well known technique? Just wondering if it's something I might run into again. It's certainly interesting! – dharmatech Jul 31 '19 at 23:53
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    @dharmatech We must split out all of the $p's$ so what remains $= A$ (or $B)$ is not divisible by $p.,$ The name is "prime factorization" (but we only care about one prime $p$ so we collect the product of all the other prime factors into $A$ (or $B).,$ It is indeed a common technique: reducing to prime powers then combining appropriately, e.g. it is used in CRT, multiplicative functions, etc. – Bill Dubuque Aug 01 '19 at 00:18
  • Thanks Bill. Yes, I see that when I wrote $o(Y) = 33^2$, the issue there is that I did not factor out all the $p$'s. OK then. Let's say $o(X) = 9 = AP = 13^2$ and $o(Y) = BP' = 27 = 1*3^3$. Now of course, the issue is that P'|P is false. As I mentioned in the last comment, if we switch them around so that $o(X) = 27$ and $o(Y) = 9$ things work. But that need to switch them seems odd. The proof is supposed to be "for any X and any Y". But I run into the above issue with when X and Y are such that $o(X) = 9$ and $o(Y) = 27$. Is there something in the proof wording that accounts for this? – dharmatech Aug 01 '19 at 07:24
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    @dharmatech This is a widely used technique for symmetric problems. Here the statement $\rm P(X,Y), :=, \exists\ Z \in G!:\ o(Z) = lcm(o(X),o(Y)),$ is symmetric in $\rm X,Y$ i.e. $\rm,P(X,Y)!\iff! P(Y,X),,$ i.e. swapping the arguments yields an equivalent statement, so it suffices to prove either. – Bill Dubuque Aug 03 '19 at 14:23
  • Thanks for confirming and for the explanation Bill. Always much appreciated! – dharmatech Aug 03 '19 at 15:29
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Both responses you have received provide correct answers. In fact, you don't need to go so far as to obtain elements of relatively prime orders; all you need to worry about are primes with the property that they divide $nm$, and the largest power of $p$ that divides $n$ is equal to the largest power of $p$ that divides $m$.

Lemma. Let $x$ and $y$ be commuting elements of a group $G$, and assume $x$ and $y$ are of finite orders $n$ and $m$, respectively. Suppose that for every prime $p$ that divides $nm$, the largest power of $p$ that divides $n$ is different from the largest power of $p$ that divides $m$. Then the order of $xy$ in $G$ is $\mathrm{lcm}(n,m)$.

Proof. Let $\ell=\mathrm{lcm}(n,m)$. It is easy to verify that $(xy)^{\ell}=1$, so we just need to show that $\ell$ is the smallest positive integer $k$ such that $(xy)^k=1$. Suppose that $(xy)^k = 1$, with $0\lt k\leq \ell$.

Since $(xy)^k = x^ky^k = 1$, then $x^k = y^{-k}$, and in particular $x^k$ has the same order as $y^k$. The order of $x^k$ is $n/\gcd(n,k)$, and the order of $y^k$ is $m/\gcd(m,k)$. Let $p$ be a prime that divides $\ell$, and let $a=\mathrm{ord}_p(n)$, $b=\mathrm{ord}_p(m)$, and $c=\mathrm{ord}_p(k)$. Assume $b\lt a$. If $c\lt a$, then $\mathrm{ord}_p(n/\gcd(n,k)) = a-c$, and $\mathrm{ord}_p(m/\gcd(m,k))=\max(0,b-c)\lt a-c$, which is impossible. Thus, $c=a$. A symmetric argument shows that if $a\lt b$, then $c=b$. That is, for all primes $p$ that divide $\ell$, we have $\mathrm{ord}_p(k) = \max(\mathrm{ord}_p(n),\mathrm{ord}_p(n)) = \mathrm{ord}_p(\ell)$. Hence $k=\ell$. QED

So now assume that $a$ is an element of order $n$ in an abelian group, and let $b$ be an element of order $m$. Let $p_1,\ldots,p_k$ be the primes that divide $nm$ and for which the $p$-order of $p_i$ in $m$ and in $n$ are equal. Then $$\mathrm{lcm}(n,m) = \mathrm{lcm}\left(n, \frac{m}{p_1\cdots p_k}\right).$$ Since $m/(p_1\cdots p_k)$ is the order of $b^{p_1\cdots p_k}$, then it follows from the lemma that $ab^{p_1\cdots p_k}$ has order $\mathrm{lcm}(n,m)$, as desired.

Arturo Magidin
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    Very nice Arturo. It's good to know that we can do this assuming only that the elements commute. – Álvaro Garcia Nov 17 '10 at 13:59
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    @Álvaro Garcia: Well, that much is really a very simple observation: just work inside $\langle x,y\rangle$. Of course, the result is horribly false if $x$ and $y$ don't commute. All sorts of weird things can happen then. – Arturo Magidin Nov 17 '10 at 17:23
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    Why isn't the mysterious notation ord$_p(n)$ defined anywhere? – Junglemath Jun 14 '20 at 23:03
  • @Junglemath: Because it isn’t mysterious in general (though of course it is if you haven’t seen it before; but it is quite common); it’s the $p$-order of $n$, which is the largest power of $p$ that divides $n$. $\mathrm{ord}_p(n)=k$ if and only if $p^k|n$ but $p^{k+1}$ does not divide $n$. – Arturo Magidin Jun 14 '20 at 23:11
  • @ArturoMagidin Thank you for the definition. I don't think that notation is nearly common enough to warrant the omission of its definition as part of an answer. I imagine I would have come across it in one of the many algebra books I've browsed through. Moreover I find it hard to believe that all of the millions of people who've read this answer knew what it was without looking it up. – Junglemath Jun 14 '20 at 23:15
  • @Junglemath: Given that the answer was written almost 10 years ago and you are the first person to ask, perhaps you may want to consider the possibility that your perspective may not be as common as you may believe. There’s nothing wrong about not knowing a piece of notation (there’s a lot of notation around). It also does not mean it’s the fault of the writer for using notation you haven’t encountered before. – Arturo Magidin Jun 14 '20 at 23:57
  • @Junglemath: By the way: of course you aren’t the first one not to know. It’s a little more common in number theory, as it is related to the $p$-adic norm in $\mathbb{Q}$. It may take more than browsing through a book to find it, though. – Arturo Magidin Jun 15 '20 at 00:03
  • Searching for ord_p in this site yields over 180 hits. – Arturo Magidin Jun 15 '20 at 00:06
  • @ArturoMagidin My point is simply that it's uncommon enough to have included its definition in your answer. – Junglemath Jun 15 '20 at 00:58
  • @Junglemath: And clearly I disagree with that estimation. Cheers. – Arturo Magidin Jun 15 '20 at 01:07
  • @DaveS.: $c$ is the order of $p$ that divides $\ell=\mathrm{lcm}(n,m)$; $a$ is the order of $p$ that divides $n$, and $b$ is the order of $p$ that divides $m$. Therefore, $c\leq\max(a,b)$. Since we are assuming $b\lt a$, we have $c\leq a$. There is no gap. – Arturo Magidin Oct 30 '20 at 03:00
  • Sorry, my comment got deleted. But I disagree. $c$ is the order of $p$ that divides $k$, not $l$. Again, I see no reason why we can't have $c>a$. – Dave S. Oct 30 '20 at 03:08
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    @DaveS.: $k$ must divide $\ell$, because $(xy)^{\ell}=1$ and $k$ is the order of $xy$. So the order of $p$ that divides $k$ is at most the order of $p$ that divides $\ell$, which is $a$. – Arturo Magidin Oct 30 '20 at 15:30
  • @ArturoMagidin , is your Lemma in some source, which I can cite? Thank you! – waveman Dec 04 '20 at 19:08
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    @Phil: I'm not aware of it appearing as-is in any source, but I submitted it as a problem to the Monthly at one point, so you could cite the solution given there. Here's a link to it on JSTOR – Arturo Magidin Dec 04 '20 at 19:12
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This is also one of the starred problems in Herstein's: Topics in Algebra book. Take a look into page 3 of this file:

In case you aren't able to view the solution i type it down as i am not able to download this file, but able to view it in Google Docs.

Solution: Let $a$ and $b$ be elements of order $m$ and $n$ respectively. Write $\text{lcm} (m,n)= \prod\limits_{i=1}^{t}p_{i}^{\alpha_{i}}$, where the $p_{i}$'s are distinct primes, and $\alpha_{i} > 0$ for each $i$. For any $i \in [1,2, \cdots,t ]$, $p_{i}^{\alpha_{i}}$ divides, either $m$ or $n$. If say, $p_{i}^{\alpha_{i}} \mid m$, then, $a^{m/p_{i}^{\alpha_{i}}}$ is of order $p_{i}^{\alpha_{i}}$. In this way we obtain elements $x_{1},\cdots,x_{t}$ of orders $p_{1}^{\alpha_{1}}, \cdots, p_{t}^{\alpha_{t}}$ respectively. Now consider elements in $G$ of the form $$x_{1}^{\beta_{1}}, \cdots, x_{t}^{\beta_{t}} \quad \cdots (3)$$ where $\beta_{i} \in \mathbb{N}$, and $i \in [1,2,\cdots,t]$.

Our next goal, is to show that, the single elements, $(x_{1},\cdots,x_{t})$ generates all elements of the form $(3)$. For this purpose, we prove that for all $\beta_{i} \in \mathbb{N}$, $i \in [1,2,\cdots t]$, the system $$ k = \beta_{1} \ (\text{mod} \ p_{1}^{\alpha_{1}})$$ $$ \cdot $$ $$\cdot $$ $$\cdot $$ $$k = \beta_{t} \ (\text{mod} \ p_{t}^{\alpha_{t}}$$ has a solution in $k$. This follows by setting $$ k =\sum\limits_{i=1}^{t} \beta_{i}c_{i} p_{1}^{\alpha_{1}} \cdots p_{i-1}^{\alpha_{i-1}}p_{i+1}^{\alpha_{i+1}} \cdots p_{t}^{\alpha_{t}}$$ where $c_{i}$ satisfies $$ c_{i} p_{1}^{\alpha_{1}} \cdots p_{i-1}^{\alpha_{i-1}}p_{i+1}^{\alpha_{i+1}} \cdots p_{t}^{\alpha_{t}} \equiv 1 \ (\text{mod} \ p_{i}^{\alpha_{i}})$$

It's not hard to see that the elements of the form in Eq.(3) form a subgroup $H$ of $G$. Hence for each $i$ the order $p_{i}^{\alpha_{i}}$ of the subgroup generated by $x_{i}$ divides $|H|$ by Lagrange's theorem. This gives $|H| \geq \prod\limits_{i=1}^{t} p_{i}^{\alpha_{i}}$. Clearly $|H| \leq \prod\limits_{i=1}^{t} p_{i}^{\alpha_{i}}$ also holds. Since the element, $(x_{1}, \cdots, x_{t})$ generates exactly $H$ it has order $|H|$

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This becomes quite easy once you know the following structural

Theorem. Any Abelian torsion group is canonically isomorphic to the direct sum of its $p$-torsion subgroups for all prime numbers$~p$.

Here the $p$-torsion subgroup is the subgroup of elements of order some power of$~p$. Note that this is not the structure theorem for finitely generated Abelian groups, as here (1) the decomposition is canonical, (2) there is no finiteness requirement for the group, and (3) the theorem deals only with torsion elements.

To see why the theorem implies the requested result, $a$ and $b$ surely live in the torsion subgroups of $G$, and viewing that as the indicated direct sum, it suffices to prove the result in each $p$-torsion subgroup separately (applying it to the components of $a$ and $b$ in that summand, and combining the new $p$-torsion elements so found as components of a torsion element of$~G$). But in a $p$-torsion group the result is trivial: as $\operatorname{lcm}(p^i,p^j)\in\{p^i,p^j\}$, one can simply choose the element with the larger order as the new element.

The proof of the theorem is based on the property: for every prime $p$, each torsion element $x$ can uniquely be written as product of a $p$-torsion element $g$ and a co-$p$-torsion element $h$ (an element with order relatively prime to$~p$). This follows from the Chinese remainder theorem for cyclic groups, which gives that (1) if $x=gh$ is any such product, then necessarily $g$ and $h$ both lie in the cyclic group generated by $x$, and (2) within that cyclic group there is a unique such pair $g,h$. Then $g$ is the component of $x$ on the $p$-torsion subgroup. Combining these components for all $p$ provides an inverse to the obvious embedding of the direct sum of the $p$-torsion subgroups into the torsion subgroup of$~G$. The proof that it does is easy.


What happens in each $p$-torsion component is trivial, but quite unrelated to what happens at other primes. This explains why the result requires breaking up of the problem across different primes. As far as I can tell all the proofs given for this question do this in some way or another.

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Let $G$ be an abelian group. Let $a$ and $b$ belong to $G$ with order $m$ and $n$ respectively.

Three cases arise:

Case 1: If $m\mid n$ or $n\mid m$ then $\mathrm{lcm}(m,n)=m$ or $n$ in the two cases respectively. Hence our condition holds trivially.

Case 2: Suppose $m$ and $n$ are co-primes. Hence $\mathrm{lcm}(m,n) = mn$. By abelian property of $G$ $(ab)^{mn} = a^{mn}b^{mn} =ee=e$. If $o(ab)<mn$ then let $k$ be smallest value for which it holds. Now $a^k$ and $b^k$ must not be $= e$ as if even one of them equals $e$ then $a^k=e$ implies $m\mid k$ as $m$ is the order of $a$. Also then $b^k=e$ implies $n\mid k$ as $n$ is the order of $b$. Hence $k$ is a multiple of $m$ and $n$ and is less than $mn$. Contradiction. Hence not possible. Now if $a^k$ and $b^k$ are not equal to $e$ and $a^kb^k=e$ Then $a^k=(b^k)^{-1}$. Hence $b^k$ belongs to $\langle a\rangle$. Hence $o(b^k) \mid o(a)=m$, but $o(b^k)\mid o(b)=n$, hence $m$ and $n$ have a common factor. Contradiction. Hence $o(ab)=mn$

Case 3: Let $m$ and $n$ not be coprime. Let $d= \gcd(m,n)$. Hence $n/d$ is coprime with $m$, so $o(a)=m$ and $o(b^d)=n/d$. But as $m$ and $n/d$ are coprimes, by Case 2 we get $o(a(b^d))=(mn)/d=mn/\gcd(m,n)=\mathrm{lcm}(m,n)$. Hence we have an element which has order $\mathrm{lcm}(m,n)$.

Hence proved.

user26857
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